HubSpot CMS for Developers Certification Exam Answers

This certification help web developers learn how to build and manage websites on the HubSpot CMS.

Covers tools and workflows developers use to build a variety of web assets in the HubSpot CMS.

Exam:

• There are 40 questions.
• The exam takes about 40 minutes to complete.
• You must answer 30 questions correctly to pass.
• You must wait 12 hours between attempts.
• You have 3 hours to complete the exam.

 

 

 

Which of the following is NOT a feature of the HubSpot CMS of special interest to web developers?

• Preconfigured solutions to common tasks
• Security and updates
• In-app and local dev workflows
• The ability to add PHP anywhere in a template

 

What does the hubspot.config.yml file do?

• Configures field names for a theme
• Configures the relationship between local files and HubSpot CMS accounts including authentication
• Configures account settings like system templates and navigation trees
• Configures the relationship between a HubSpot account and the yaml preprocessor

 

Which of the following is possible with the command line tools?

• Creating a new template
• Watching for changes in local files and uploading on save
• Creating a new module
• All of the above

 

Which of the following statements about templates is NOT TRUE?

• Templates allow content creators to do their job without having to collaborate with designers and developers during every step of creating web pages.
• Templates have a big effect on the editing experience for content creators.
• Templates can only be used to create one live page in the HubSpot CMS.
• Templates are an important intersection point for developers and content editors.

 

Which of the following statements about templates is TRUE?

• Templates must be purchased from a 3rd party vendor.
• There are no requirements for header and footer content.
• Comments are not allowed in templates because they look messy.
• Templates use HubL to create editable areas of pages.

 

Which of the following statements about drag and drop areas is TRUE?

• The dnd_area tag is all that is needed for basic drag and drop functionality in the page editor.
• Drag and drop areas allow developers to drag scripts into their pages for rapid prototyping with handlebars.
• Drag and drop areas must contain at least one rich text area.
• The dnd_area tag is a special HubL tag that editors can copy and paste into the file manager to edit photos.

 

Choose all that apply. Which of the following are always good strategies for building templates?

• Keeping content editors front of mind at all times and optimizing their editing experience.
• Building in appropriate guardrails to help content editors quickly build pages and reduce the likelihood of errors and bugs.
• Looking for ways to keep your codebase DRY and avoid repeated code that is prone to bugs.
• Creating lots of blank templates that require content editors to build everything from scratch.

 

Which of the following statements about a healthy codebase is TRUE?

• Repeating the same code throughout your codebase is usually preferable to abstracting and reusing code because it’s easier for novice developers to understand.
• Developers using the HubSpot CMS are discouraged from reusing snippets of code because the cost of the CMS is prorated by file size and we would prefer that your codebase is extremely large.
• DRY is an acronym that stands for Do Right Yesterday. It means that finishing a project early is better than taking extra time to make a codebase maintainable.
• Reducing instances of repeated code helps to keep your codebase tidy and bug free.

 

Which statement about repeating module fields is FALSE?

• Repeating fields give editors the ability to add or subtract instances of fields.
• The HubL used to implement repeating fields uses a loop.
• Repeating fields and flexible columns are the same thing.
• It is also possible to use repeating field groups.

 

Which of the following statements about HubSpot CMS themes is TRUE?

• Themes are a package of assets that help keep a website consistent.
• Themes are only relevant for very large websites.
• Themes should only contain 5 templates.
• Themes cannot contain modules.

 

Which file in a theme controls the global fields that content editors can edit?

• fields.xml
• theme.json
• fields.json
• That depends on the operating system the content editor is using.

 

Choose all that apply. Which of the following options is configured in the theme.json file?

• Name of the theme
• Link to a preview image for the theme
• List of account users who cannot use the theme

 

Which of the following statements about global partials is NOT TRUE?

• Global partials are a good way to keep your codebase DRY.
• Global partials can only be used on one template in a theme.
• Global partials can be used to give content editors access to content that appears in more than one template.
• Global partials can contain content that is not editable in the content editor.

 

Which of the following statements about theme fields is NOT TRUE?

• Theme fields can give editors access to CSS properties.
• Developers can use theme fields to make a theme extremely flexible.
• Developers don’t need to worry about how theme fields might be used by editors because theme fields can’t be used to make a website inconsistent or difficult to navigate.
• Theme fields can affect the appearance of an entire website.

 

Which of the following statements about theme modules is TRUE?

• Theme modules should never contain styles.
• Theme modules are a great way to keep sites stylistically consistent.
• Theme modules need to contain a special JavaScript statement that makes them appear in the theme module section of the content editor.
• Themes that use fields should not need modules.

 

True or False? People hate dragging and dropping things so the HubSpot CMS does not contain this capability.

• True
• False

 

If you wanted to create an unordered list from each value in a dictionary, which aspect of HubL would be most essential?

• An expression test
• A Loop
• The do tag
• This is not possible in HubL

 

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Which CMS tool are developers most likely to spend the most time with?

• a – Editor
• b – File manager
• c – CRM
• d – Design manager

 

Which of the following statements about HubL and JavaScript is TRUE?

• a – HubL can be used in both the HTML + HubL and the JS sections of the module editor.
• b – HubL tags contain a “post_js_rendering” attribute so that you can pass JS data to HubL in modules.
• c – Module builders can choose between JavaScript and HubL to add module fields to their markup.
• d – JS written in the HTML + HubL section of the module editor will be repeated on a page for every instance of a module.

 

Which of the following is not included in HubL?

• a – Loops
• b – Macros
• c – Filters
• d – Classes

 

Which of the following statements about modules is FALSE?

• a – Modules can be used to maintain consistency in site functionality.
• b – Modules can be used to add consistency to website maintenance.
• c – Modules can be used to create a more consistent user experience for editors.
• d – None of the above.

 

Which of the following statements about blog templates is NOT true?

• a – Listing and post pages can be separate templates.
• b – Templates are connected to blogs in settings.
• c – Blog templates must contain an author profile and a full list of available topics.
• d – The blog content module contains listing and post HubL markup.

 

Which of the following statements about HubL module syntax is NOT TRUE?

• a – Basic module syntax is a single line statement.
• b – HubL modules use three curly braces to open and close tags.
• c – HubL modules can be added with a block syntax.
• d – HubL modules use parameters for required and optional module settings.

 

Which of the following statements about using HubL in blog listing templates is NOT true?

• a – Use a loop to add blog posts to the listing template.
• b – Author name is the only author data available in the listing conditional of a template.
• c – Conditionals can be used to add or subtract content from author and topic views.
• d – If you’re using one template for both the listing and post views, you’ll need a conditional to separate the markup for each view.

 

Which of the following statements about blog settings is TRUE?

• a – Content editors can assign any number of templates to individual blog posts by tag.
• b – It is not possible to assign separate templates for listing and post views in settings.
• c – Listing page post summaries can be enabled and disabled in settings.
• d – All blog settings can be overridden by HubL at the template level.

 

Which of the following statements about email templates is NOT true?

• a – CAN SPAM fields are required.
• b – You can customize the appearance of CAN SPAM content with HTML and CSS.
• c – Email templates cannot contain custom modules.
• d – Email testing is accessed through the editor.

 

Which of the following is NOT an important aspect of using HubL?

• a – Documentation
• b – Memorizing all tags and parameters
• c – Community
• d – Developer info

 

True or false? It is not possible to publish an email without a link to at least one email subscription template.

• a – False
• b – True

 

True or false? Page metadata can be populated in the “Settings” section of the page editor.

• a – False
• b – True

 

Which statement about template types in the HubSpot CMS is TRUE?

• a – There is only one template type.
• b – There are a number of different template types which can be created in either drag and drop or coded formats.
• c – The editing experience is exactly the same for every template type.
• d – There are three template types.

 

When creating a drag and drop template, how do you add components?

• a – Components are added in “Settings.”
• b – Templates are pre-populated with all the available components.
• c – Components can be dragged from the “Add” section of the Inspector.
• d – Components must be coded in Javascript and uploaded via FTP.

 

Which of the following is NOT available in the file manager?

• a – File URL
• b – HTML image snippets
• c – Replace button to swap assets
• d – Template and content dependencies

 

Which statement about adding classes to groups is TRUE?

• a – You must use a coded template to add classes to groups.
• b – Classes added to groups of components will be added to all components inside the group.
• c – Classes inside of global groups will apply to every instance of that global group in a site.
• d – Classes cannot be added to groups.

 

Which statement about stylesheets is TRUE?

• a – When a template is created, a new stylesheet with the name of the new template is automatically created and attached to the template.
• b – New stylesheets automatically include helpful but optional CSS.
• c – HubSpot stylesheets are written in Javascript
• d – Stylesheets can be added to specific areas of templates with the stylesheet module.

 

Which of the following CMS tools is used in CAN-SPAM compliance?

• a – Navigation in settings
• b – Email settings
• c – The replace button in file details
• d – The templates tab in blog settings

 

True or false? System templates are not published from templates by content editors.

• a – True
• b – False

 

Which of the following statements about the design manager is NOT true?

• a – The design manager is an IDE.
• b – The design manager helps developers build and manage assets.
• c – The design manager is used by content editors to publish pages.
• d – The design manager can be used to edit CSS files.

 

Which statement about CSS in modules is TRUE?

• a – CSS rules will have the same effect on the page whether they’re written in the CSS section or the HTML+ HubL section of the module editor.
• b – Module CSS is automatically scoped to modules and will not apply to other elements on a page.
• c – CSS added to the HTML+ HubL section of the module editor will be repeated on the page in every instance of a module.
• d – Modules require custom CSS and cannot be published without it.

 

Which of the following statements about accessing HubDB via Javascript is NOT true?

• a – Most GET requests only require a table ID.
• b – Modifying table data requires authentication.
• c – Using an API key in client side code is a bad idea.
• d – As long as your Javascript is written in the CMS, it can be used to modify table data.

 

Which of the following statements does NOT accurately describe HubL?

• a – HubL is a templating language for building assets in the HubSpot CMS.
• b – HubL provides common programming constructs like variables, loops, and conditionals.
• c – HubL is not client side code.
• d – HubL provides state management for single page apps.

 

Which of the following statements about module fields is TRUE?

• a – Modules can contain logic fields.
• b – Modules have 7 available fields.
• c – Math fields allow content editors to use modules for common tasks like long division.
• d – Field groups can only contain fields of the same category.

 

Which of the following HubL and HubDB behaviors should be avoided if possible?

• a – Use a filter query to reduce the data returned from a request.
• b – Use the reject attribute filter to create subsets of table data from an initial request.
• c – Use multiple requests to the same table to build complex templates.
• d – Use loops to access data in multi-select columns.

 

Which type of CMS assets do not require HubL?

• a – Custom modules
• b – Drag and drop templates
• c – Coded email templates
• d – Coded blog templates

 

Which of the following is not an aspect of dynamic pages?

• a – Dynamic pages require multiple templates.
• b – Pages are generated from table rows.
• c – A published page must be linked to a dynamic page table via page settings.
• d – Links to dynamic pages should be added to the listing section of a template.

 

Which of the following is NOT a sound strategy for working with HubDB?

• a – Plan out your data needs with stakeholders before creating tables in HubDB.
• b – While adding data to tables, create columns as needed and iterate as the project grows.
• c – Use multiple tables linked with foreign ids to handle complex, multi-faceted content.
• d – Use select columns to standardize repeated values.

 

Which of the following characters are used to open a HubL statement?

• a – {-
• b – {%
• c – [&
• d – {#

 

True or false? HubDB is a good place to store customer data such as credit card numbers.

• a – True
• b – False

 

Which of the following is NOT possible with HubL?

• a – Passing data from HubL to client side code
• b – Passing data from client side code to HubL
• c – Looping through data
• d – Conditionally executing HubL statements

 

Which of the following is NOT an aspect of HubDB?

• a – HubDB is a semi-relational data store.
• b – HubDB is a subset of fork of MySQL.
• c – HubDB uses tables to store data in rows.
• d – HubDB tables are accessed with a unique ID.

 

Which of the following statements about HubL filters is TRUE?

• a – HubL filters are only used in expressions.
• b – HubL filters are used for a wide variety of tasks.
• c – HubL filters cannot be used in loops.
• d – HubL filters do not accept arguments or parameters.

 

Which of the following statements about navigation items is FALSE?

• a – Navigation items can have extra URL parameters.
• b – It is possible to create items without links.
• c – Navigation items are automatically created when editors create a new page and cannot be created elsewhere.

 

Which of the following is NOT a system template?

• a – Email subscription preferences page
• b – Search results page
• c – Blog preferences page
• d – Error page

 

Which statement about the “Prevent editing in content editors” option is TRUE?

• a – Prevent editing in content editors is not an option in HubSpot CMS templates.
• b – Prevent editing in content editors is a blog feature that allows developers to lock the number of tags in a blog.
• c – Prevent editing in content editors allows content editors to set permissions levels for specific content so that other editors cannot make edits.
• d – Prevent editing in content editors allows developers to set static values for components at the template level that content editors cannot modify in the page editor.

 

Which statement about naming components is FALSE?

• a – Components can be named in the Inspector.
• b – Component names help content editors understand how to use a template.
• c – Component names can be the same as their default values.
• d – Component names should be left at default because content editors will always get all the context they need from the editor.

 

Which of the following is NOT an important reason to familiarize yourself with available settings?

• a – Some templates are coded exclusively in settings.
• b – Some settings determine data available in templates.
• c – Code can be added globally in settings.
• d – Web developers should advise content editors on technical aspects.

 

Which of the following statements about menus in HubSpot is FALSE?

• a – Navigation with more than one level is managed in settings.
• b – Simple menus can be edited at the page level.
• c – HubDB can be used to build totally custom menus.
• d – The only way to build a menu is with the menu tool.

 

Which data structure does HubL use for storing data in key and value pairs?

• a – Lists
• b – Dictionaries
• c – Objects
• d – Binary trees

 

Which statement about module fields is FALSE?

• a – It’s a good idea to give fields an intuitive and descriptive name to help content editors use your modules.
• b – Fields have HubL variable names that are used to create the markup for modules.
• c – Fields can be required but there’s no support for custom validation.
• d – The available options for fields vary depending on the field type.

 

Which of the following sets of data would NOT be a good fit for storing in a single HubDB table?

• a – Names, titles, and biographies of employees of an organization
• b – A dinner menu for a restaurant
• c – Information about cats available for adoption from an animal shelter
• d – Product inventory, hex values for internal branding guidelines, vendor contact archive

 

Which of the following statements about HubL in modules is TRUE?

• a – Modules must contain custom HubL and cannot be published without it.
• b – HTML attributes cannot contain HubL code.
• c – Module fields are added to module markup with HubL.
• d – The drag and drop editor allows you to write HubL in a custom module without having to write code.

 

Which of the following statements about blog templates is TRUE?

• a – Any template can be used for blogs.
• b – Blog templates cannot contain custom modules.
• c – To build a blog template, you must write custom HubL.
• d – Only blog templates can be used for blogs.

 

Which CMS tool would you use to find the file size of a PNG?

• a – Email settings
• b – File manager
• c – Blog editor
• d – Website pages settings

 

 

 

 

HubSpot Guided Client Onboarding Certification Exam Answers

 

• There are 50 questions.
• It should take 1 hour to complete.
• You must answer 38 questions correctly to pass.
• You must wait 12 hours between attempts.
• You have 3 hours to finish the exam.

 

 

 

What is Guided Client Onboarding?

• The process in which you deliver inbound services for your customer independently without any help
• The process in which your partner manager will guide you through how to deliver inbound services successfully for the first few HubSpot customers you acquire
• The process in which you guide your customers on how to utilize HubSpot
• When your customer is onboarding by a HubSpot onboarding specialist

 

What are the three main categories of Guided Client Onboarding?

• Fundamentals, Implementation, Review
• Setup, Campaign, Audit
• Discovery, Execution, Review
• Foundation, Integration, Implementation

 

Which of the following is NOT a step in Guided Client Onboarding?

• Client Prep
• Quick Wins
• Integrations
• Hub Strategy Execution

 

Fill in the blank: The purpose of Smarketing is to _________.

• Ensures alignment between sales and marketing team
• Being smart with your marketing campaign execution
• Develop common goals between you and your client
• Having SMART goals for your marketing campaign

 

What is the name of the evaluating process customers go through in the first 90 days?

• Buyer’s Remorse
• Purchase Validation
• Purchase Uncertainty
• Software Evaluation

 

Fill in the blank: In the ____ stage of the Guided Client Onboard Process, you start to implement the various HubSpot Hubs.

• Portal Setup
• Smarketing
• Hub Strategy Execution
• Portal Audit

 

Which of the following is NOT a GCO milestone you should aim to achieve?

• Goal Setting
• Technical Setup
• Agency Value
• Business Growth

 

Which of the following is NOT a recommended task in a client prep plan?

• Collect information from your client
• Set clear SMART goals between you and your client
• Schedule and run a kickoff call with your client
• Outline your client’s sales process

 

True or false? Implementing “quick wins” is recommended to be included in your onboarding timeline.

• True
• False

 

To launch your client’s first campaign, you’ll need:

• Information about your client’s buyer personas
• Details about your client’s priorities
• Any available content, as this content can be repurposed for future marketing efforts
• All of the above

 

True or false? HubSpot requires that all Solutions partners have a signed retainer with their clients prior to having the client sign on for a HubSpot subscription.

• True
• False

 

Proper technical setup helps you measure inbound efforts, such as:

• Traffic
• Leads
• Customers
• All of the above

 

What social accounts can you connect to HubSpot?

• Twitter
• Facebook
• LinkedIn
• Instagram
• All of the above

 

When setting up an email sending domain, if you want to send an email as myname@mydomain.com, your email sending domain should be:

• myname@mydomain.com
• .com
• myname
• mydomain.com

 

True or False? HubSpot automatically removes duplicates as long as the email address is the same.

• True
• False

 

Which template type is not included in a first-time template setup?

• Landing Page
• System
• Blog
• Email

 

By completing the setup of your client’s HubSpot account, you’re:

• Getting their website ready for your team to implement the inbound strategy
• Adding contacts so you can start tracking visitor behavior
• Adding users so everyone on both teams can contribute
• Integrating the necessary external software so you can track visitors as they move through your client’s touch points
• All of the above

 

Why is it important to properly set up your client’s time zone in their HubSpot settings?

• It creatives effective and timely emails to your client’s contacts
• It creates timely social media posts to your client’s social accounts
• It matches your web analytics to your company’s time zone
• All of the above
• None of the above

 

Fill in the blank: If your client is hosting their HubSpot forms on external non-HubSpot pages, it is important that you paste the form’s _____ in the HTML of your client’s external page.

• Hidden field
• Embed code
• URL
• Form fields

 

Having a marketing-to-sales handoff process is crucial for partner success because it will:

• Ensure your client is receiving and following up with every lead effectively
• Clearly define the responsibilities for both marketing and sales
• Track leads who have converted into customers
• All of the above

 

Fill in the blank: An agreement made by two parties to uphold a certain standard of service is called ____________.

• A strategic partnership
• A service-level agreement
• An agency-client relationship
• Guided Client Onboarding

 

When trying to understand a client’s sales process, which of the following is NOT a suggested exploratory question?

• Do you currently use a CRM?
• What do you like most about HubSpot?
• How is your sales team structured?
• What does your prospect outreach look like?

 

If tracking is in place to record contacts who have become customers, what should your handoff process accomplish next?

• Marketing is handing off contacts to sales
• Sales is following up with contacts
• Sales is collecting context for contacts
• Contacts who have become customers are tracked
• Sales is providing feedback on the quality of the contacts

 

Fill in the blank: The benefit of having a seamless sales to services handoff is that customers will ___________.

• Experience a shorter time to value
• Experience a longer time to value
• Rely more on their customer success agent than sales rep
• Save time because their customer success agent and sales rep are the same person

 

What can note templates do for your sales and customer success teams?

• Foster clear communication between two parties while saving time
• Ensure deals are getting logged in the correct way
• Ensure no one is incorrectly entering information
• Allow managers to know what their reps and agents are up to

 

The situation, behavior, impact feedback model works well with teams because it ensures that feedback is _________.

• Tied to your emotions
• Delivered weekly
• Specific
• Shared

 

It is important to be transparent with your sales’ and services’ goals because it _________.

• Creates empathy. Each team knows what the other team prioritizes and why.
• Creates healthy competition. Each team will strive to be the best they can be.
• Creates equality. Sales and customer success folks will push leadership to ensure both teams are treated equally.
• Transparency isn’t a good idea with sales’ and customer success teams’ goals.

 

Developing a quick win approach allows you to:

• Pacify the natural impatience that comes with the clients investment
• Ensure the client does not lose sight of the big goals that the team wants to accomplish
• Provide the client with immediate and tangible results that increase their confidence in their choice of a Solutions Partner
• All of the above

 

A “quick win” strategy is when a partner:

• Completes the technical setup of their client’s portals
• Undertakes small tasks in their client HubSpot portal that takes no more than a couple hours to implement
• Helps their client close their first deal
• All of the above

 

When should you set goals with your client?

• You should not set goals with your client
• You should set goals the initial conversation after the client came onboard with HubSpot
• You should set goals after your client launches their first campaign in HubSpot
• You should set goals after your client closes their first customer in HubSpot

 

At what point should you implement quick wins in a new client relationship?

• In the first month or two
• After a year of working with them
• At month six
• Before completing the portal technical setup

 

True or False: A quick win strategy does not need to be specific and tailored to a client.

• True
• False

 

Which of the following is an example of a “quick win”?

• Adding users to your client’s HubSpot portal
• Setting up your client’s email sending domain
• Creating a topic cluster strategy
• Employing a chat bot

 

What is the meaning of Day Zero?

• The first day your customer has access to their HubSpot subscription
• The minimum set of tasks a user must complete before your customer is able to realize the full value of a product
• The day the customer decides to cancel their subscription because they have not seen value
• When your inbound retainer with you customer commences

 

True or False? The Guided Client Onboarding projects can be accessed in the HubSpot knowledge base

• True
• False

 

What are the three foundational components of inbound marketing campaigns?

• Buyer’s Journey, Campaign Planning,Campaign Audit
• Buyers’ Personas, Content Audit, Campaign Setup
• Buyer’s Personas, Buyer’s Journey, Content Strategy
• Campaign Setup, Campaign Audit, Campaign Analysis

 

Which of the following is NOT a campaign type?

• Topic Cluster Content Strategy
• Marketing Automation Campaign
• Lead Generation With Content Offer
• Event and Webinar Optimization

 

What three areas do you need to ensure your customer is familiar with when it comes to CRM enablement?

• Contacts, Companies, Deals
• Templates, Sequences, Meetings
• Contact List, Contact Profile, Deals
• Deals, Quotes, Workflows

 

Which sales enablement tool helps sales reps automate their follow up process?

• Sequences
• Workflows
• Templates
• Quotes

 

Which of the following is NOT a core Service Hub feature that you should execute?

• Knowledge Base
• Tickets
• Customer Feedback
• Blogs

 

Which of the following is NOT a benefit of making reporting available to clients?

• Your work and results will seem effective for clients
• Each activity can be tied to a performance metric
• You avoid conveying deeper insights behind your work
• It’s essential for good education

 

When reporting results to clients, best practices suggest you report your team’s activities on what cadence?

• Daily
• Weekly
• Monthly
• Quarterly

 

When reporting results to clients, best practices suggest you report your campaigns’ results on what cadence?

• Daily
• Weekly
• Monthly
• Quarterly

 

True or false? Using your data to tell a story isn’t an effective use of time and adds confusion about results.

• True
• False

 

Fill in the blank: A _________ report displays the progress of moving contacts through your client’s funnel.

• Contact lifecycle funnel
• Contact by source with lifecycle stage
• New marketing qualified leads
• Engagement metrics

 

True or false? Having a well-defined buyer persona can help you build a better marketing plan in the long run.

• True
• False

 

Fill in the blank: The conversation you can expect to have with your channel consultant 6 months after your customer’s start date with HubSpot is called a _________.

• Quarterly Progress Review
• Portal Audit
• Renewal Call
• None of the above

 

What is the purpose of a portal audit?

• Identify opportunities for improvement within the tool
• Produce ways to improve product usage
• Increase the chances that your client will renew
• All of the above

 

If a customer has low product usage, which tool would you NOT recommend using to gain the highest potential for results as quickly as possible?

• Upload a list of contacts and launch an email campaign
• Publish blog content
• Share content on social media
• None of the above

 

Encourage clients on the Growth Stack to:

• Review the companies associated with their contacts
• Manage their sales pipeline via deals
• Sync their inbox with the CRM
• All of the above

 

True or False? Guided Client Onboarding will be provided for all customers you bring on.

• True
• False

 

Fill in the blank: __________ is NOT a reason why Guided Client Onboarding is important for you?

• Best in class inbound services delivery
• Develop scalable and repeatable processes
• Customer is paying you for onboarding instead of paying HubSpot
• Build sustained revenue for your business

 

True or False? You should not do a portal audit for all customers you provide HubSpot onboarding/Inbound services for.

• True
• False

 

SMART goals can be defined as:

• Strategic, Measurable, Attract, Relevant, Timely
• Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Relevant, Timely
• Specific, Measurable, Attract, Recognizable, Thorough
• Strategic, Measurable, Attainable, Recognizable, Targeted

 

Fill in the blank: It is important to install the HubSpot tracking code to external content in order to __________.

• Sync your HubSpot with Google Analytics
• Begin pulling in traffic analytics on non-HubSpot content
• Begin pulling in traffic analytics on HubSpot-hosted content
• Activate the HubSpot CRM

 

Understanding the differentiation between MQLs and SQLs falls under what section of your handoff blueprint?

• Which lifecycle stages the client uses
• What triggers lifecycle stages
• Which tools are used
• Who’s responsible for what

 

Having sales reps reach out to prospects who have converted on a decision-stage offer falls under what section of the handoff blueprint?

• Which lifecycle stages the client uses
• What triggers lifecycle stages
• Which tools are used
• Who’s responsible for what

 

Which of the following is NOT considered an example of a “quick win”.

• Technical Setup
• Employing a pop-up form on your home page
• Repurposing old content for blog posts
• Setting up a meetings link for your client’s sales team

 

Which option below does NOT apply to how a partner should prepare for a portal audit?

• Come prepared with the client’s SMART goals
• Invite the client to join the portal audit call
• Review the client’s sources report to see how the website is performing to traffic, conversions and new customers
• Assess how the client is feeling about their engagement with you

 

What information do you need to make product recommendations?

• Client’s product usage
• Anything pertinent to the client’s engagement
• The client’s goals
• All of the above

 

True or False? If a customer has little to no activity in their HubSpot portal, the primary objective is to resume or start activity as soon as possible.

• True
• False

 

Which of the following is NOT a part of the quick win criteria:

• Is goal-oriented
• Is systematic
• Reduces time to value
• Must be uniform for all clients
• Is not included as part of the technical setup

 

Which client would you recommend to roll out a live chat for a quick win strategy:

• Client A: Large Company with a robust set of products or services
• Client B: One-person show who runs both sales and support
• Client A and B
• Neither Client A nor B

 

What should you do after a portal audit?

• Nothing
• Focus on 3-5 specific activities over the next few months
• Redo the entire portal and start over
• Tell your client you can’t work with them anymore

 

 

 

 

Hubspot Delivering Sales Services Answers

 

The Delivering Sales Services course will teach you how to offer sales services as a way to deliver strong ROI to your clients and increase your retainers. In addition to the on-demand videos, you’ll see examples of HubSpot Agency Partners doing this successfully. Each class is full of actionable tips and processes you can make your own.

 

 

 

 

Sales and Marketing Alignment

 

Which of the following is NOT a good criterion for an ideal buyer profile?

Geographic location

Size of company

Industry or vertical

Job title

 

Looking at the matrix below, what should your client do when prospects fit into the highlighted quadrant?

Have sales make immediate contact

Have marketing nurture

Offer group-based resources

Avoid investing too many resources

 

 

True or false? If your client sells into multiple industries, they should have an ideal buyer profile for each.

True

False

 

The processes for creating an ideal buyer profile and creating a buyer persona are essentially the same except for one key difference. What is it?

Buyer personas are optional, but every company needs to have at least one ideal buyer profile.

Ideal buyer profiles are static, but buyer personas need to be continually updated.

Ideal buyer profiles only includes demographic information, while buyer personas should include information about a person’s goals, fears, and challenges.

Buyer personas should be created primarily by the marketing team, while ideal buyer profiles should be created primarily by sales.

 

Looking at the matrix below, what should your client do when prospects fit into the highlighted quadrant?

Have marketing nurture these leads

Offer group-based resources

Avoid investing too many resources

Hand off to sales and have sales make immediate contact

 

Looking at the matrix below, what should your client do for leads that fall into the highlighted quadrant?

Have marketing nurture

Avoid investing too many resources

Have sales make immediate contact

Offer group-based resources

 

Looking at the matrix below, what should your client do when prospects fit into the highlighted quadrant?

Have marketing nurture

Offer group-based resources

Avoid investing too many resources

Have sales make immediate contact

 

True or false? Your client can only have one buyer persona per ideal buyer profile.

True

False

 

CRM Implementation

 

When implementing HubSpot CRM for a client, should you help them create custom properties?

Yes – help them create as many as they need for the information they want to know about their contacts.

Yes – but focus primarily on properties to hold information connected to their buyer personas and the way they qualify leads.

No – it’s better to teach them about the standard properties and then add custom properties later, after they already understand the basics.

No – while adding custom properties is an option, creating new properties early on can lead to confusion and disorganization later.

 

You have a client that you think would benefit from using HubSpot CRM. When you suggest this to them, they say, “I like the idea of using a CRM, but I don’t think my reps will remember to record their activities in it.” What’s the best way to respond to address this concern?

“No worries–we can use the Tasks feature to send reminder emails to your reps so they don’t forget.”

“Good point–maybe HubSpot CRM isn’t a good fit for you.”

“Good point–let’s make sure we set up a time to train your reps so they understand the value of recording their work in the CRM.”

“Not a problem–HubSpot CRM automatically records emails and calls so reps don’t have to.”

 

You have a client who is already using HubSpot’s marketing platform and wants to try out HubSpot CRM. How do you get them started?

By going to hubspot.com/crm and creating a CRM account

By adding the CRM to their existing portal

Reach out to your Channel Consultant to create a new portal that includes marketing and CRM

Have your client contact HubSpot Support to enable this in their portal

 

Which of the following is NOT a standard report on the Sales Dashboard?

Deal Forecast

Sales Performance

Deal Leaderboard

Productivity

 

You are implementing HubSpot CRM for a client who doesn’t use Gmail or Outlook for their emails. What is the best way for their team to log their emails in HubSpot CRM?

Using the email functionality on the contact record to send emails from inside the CRM

Manually logging emails in the CRM

Importing the email messages in bulk

Using the CRM’s bcc and forwarding addresses

 

Fill in the blank. Before a client can start tracking their active sales inside HubSpot CRM, they need to customize their _____________.

lead views

buyer personas

deal stages

sales process

 

Collecting a client’s contact data together to import can be a daunting task. What is the BEST way to position this job to your client?

Point out importing is actually just a small part of the full implementation process.

Remind them that the outcome will be worth the trouble.

Present it as an opportunity for them to organize and validate their data.

Tell them that it’ll be a lot of work but it’s unavoidable.

 

Sales Enablement

 

You want to help your client automate their sales rep email follow up. Which tool would be most helpful?

The Workflow tool because this will allow marketers to take over and nurture leads for the sales reps.

The Meetings tool because this will allow prospects to easily set up time with a sales rep.

The Sequences tool because this will allow sales reps to schedule a series of targeted emails to send over time.

The Documents tool because sales reps can see which content to send next to the prospect.

 

True or false? One of the biggest challenges of successful sales enablement is creating enough content. Most companies don’t have enough content for the sales team to be able to send prospects in the buying process.

True

False

 

True or false? Your client’s sales reps should use HubSpot Sales to track when a message has been opened or clicked as a way to understand when a prospect signals their interest.

True

False

 

All of the following are tactics to help your client engage with their prospects, EXCEPT:

Track contacts who are in-market for their services

Convert website traffic into leads

Make it easier for prospects to book meetings with your client’s sales reps

Tailor and template email outreach messages

 

You’re teaching a client how to handle content management and creation. How should the sales team be involved during this process?

Only in the beginning. Gather the content that the sales team is currently using, and then let the marketing team take it from there.

Throughout the process. Determine the content the sales team has produced, involve them in future content creation and in providing feedback to the marketing team.

Not at all. When it comes to content, you should only focus on working with your client’s marketing team to determine which content the sales team needs.

At the very end. This is when you should present the content analysis to the sales team and make sure they know which content they should use moving forward.

 

 

 

 

 

Hubspot Delivering Client Success Answers

 

The Delivering Client Success course will help you improve your client delivery process. In addition to the on-demand videos, you’ll receive resources such as templates and questionnaires to help you put what you learn into practice.

 

 

Completing a Content Audit with Clients

 

Which of the following should you review with your client during your goal setting workshop?

• A.) Discuss any discrepancies in your questionnaire findings
• B.) Explain how inbound marketing will help your client reach these goals
• C.) Ask about your client’s soft goals
• D.) B and C
• E.) All of the above

 

True or false? You should set up a meeting with your client to go through your content audit findings and recommendations.

True – it’s always good to report back findings to client as they happen on a daily basis.

True – you should report all your finding and recommendations to your client once you’ve completed the entire content audit.

False – your client‘s time is limited. Just send them the report and move on.

False – it’s best to send the content audit after you’ve created your strategy plan so that you client doesn’t have to review two separate documents.

 

Why is it so important to show your client quick wins?

Quick wins will help you manage client expectations.

It’s not important to show your clients quick wins in the beginning of the engagement.

Quick wins help show immediate value and ROI to your clients.

Quick wins are the only way to build client trust.

 

You’re in the process of identifying the content your client current has. Which of the following should you include in this audit?

A.) Email newsletters

B.) Direct mail

C.) Videos

D.) Proposal templates

E.) A and C

F.) A, C, and D

G.) All of the above

 

Asking questions to determine a piece of content’s format, age, and accuracy happens during which step of a content audit?

Categorizing content

Providing recommendations to the client

Evaluating the performance of content

Identifying existing company content

 

True or false? Most clients won’t have much content to review. Therefore, you should only provide a content audit for clients who you know have a lot of content on their website.

True

False   Your new client is a travel company that helps businesses set up company team building activities and retreats. While conducting your content audit, you find a printed brochure with pricing details and customer testimonials. How should you evaluate the performance of this content? A.) Talk to sales reps who have used this brochure to see if it’s helpful in the sales process. B.) Speak to your client’s customers who have previously interacted with this content to get their feedback. C.) Include this piece of content in your audit, but you can only evaluate the performance if it’s available online as well. D.) Share the brochure with the other members of your agency to get an unbiased opinion on the effectiveness of the content. E.) A and B F.) C and D G.) All of the above   Goal Setting and Assessments with Clients   True or false? You should only have the CEO, CMO, and main point of contact complete the stakeholder questionnaire. True – only the key stakeholders like the CEO and CMO will have a say in setting goals. Therefore only they should complete the questionnaire to get a true reflection of the company’s goals. True – while you can ask more members on the team informally about their goals, only the CEO, CMO, and your main point of contact should complete the formal questionnaire. False – it depends. If this client has over 50 employees, you should only involve the CEO, CMO, and main point of contact. False – have several managers from different departments complete the questionnaire. This will help you in identifying the differences and similarities in everyone’s views on company goals.   Which of the following questions will help you understand your client’s soft goals? What is your current cost per lead? What is your sales target for the next quarter? What does success look like to you? What are your marketing goals?   You’re in the process of goal setting with your client and they tell you they haven’t been tracking data. How should you proceed? It’s not uncommon for clients to have difficulty tracking numbers, so accept this and move along to the next step. Make a note of this and share it with your client. When you look back on your goals, you’ll be able to help your client recognize there was no data to use as a benchmark when setting initial goals. Start tracking your client’s performance now and wait three months to get data before setting any goals. Base the client’s goal on your other client’s performance who are in a similar industry.   Fill in the blanks: An example of a ________ goal is to grow revenue this quarter by 10%. While developing a new service offering in the next year is an example of a ________ goal. business, sales sales, business sales, marketing business, marketing   The goals you set with your client should be all of the following, EXCEPT: Documented Specific Based on their competitor’s performance Approved by the client   Creating a Strategy Plan for your Clients   Fill in the blanks: A strategy plan should ALWAYS be linked to your client’s ___________ . content audit corporate identity goals previous marketing initiatives   All of the following are reasons why a strategy plan is important, EXCEPT: It helps you manage your client’s expectations. It gives you direction to achieve your goals. It allows you to identify the tactics you’ll use. It outlines when you’ll have meetings with your clients.   Which of the following documents BEST helps guide your strategy plan for your client? The content audit checklist. The SLA that was completed during the sales process. The invoice that was sent to client. The meeting agenda template. True or false? You should wait to give your client the buyer persona questionnaire until you hold an in-person workshop. You don’t want their answers to influenced by others on their team, or by external research. True False What are the four main items to highlight in your strategy plan? Goals, timelines and delivery, social media profiles, and promotional tactics Goals, identified campaigns, timelines and delivery, and points of contact Goals, identified campaigns, timelines and delivery, and promotional tactics Goals, identified campaigns, cost, and promotional tactics True or false? It’s important for your client to sign-off on the persona document. True – they need to sign off the document because the client is always right. True – you shouldn’t proceed without having their feedback and sign-off. False -it’s not important because it’s an agile document so it will change all the time. Showing them the document now will cause unnecessary confusion. False – they don’t need to look at the document, since you’ll be doing the marketing work for them. Only show them if they ask.   Delivering and Demonstrating Value to your Clients   What should you do with your client’s ideas for work that are outside of the original project scope? Tell the client you cannot action them Put them into a list for the future Ignore them Implement them immediately to show your value   Your monthly reports should be all the following EXCEPT: Aligned to the goals you set with the client Paired with the metrics your client needs to see in the report Focused only on numbers Comprehensive and easy to understand   True or false? During your quarterly review meeting, it’s okay if things haven’t gone 100% as planned. However, only highlight things that didn’t go well to your client if it was something out of your agency’s control. True False

 

 

 

 

 

Android Enterprise Support Engineer Answers

 

Android Enterprise Experts Certification Exam Answers

 

Module 1 Lesson 2 Answers

 

Q.1 – Match the question to its corresponding watchpoint. Drag each question to a box, then submit.

Select OS version/device – Are the critical apps, policies and configurations supported by the OS?

Set device policies – Are there multiple, conflicting policies set?

Upload apps – Did you target your private apps to your managed Google Play Accounts enterprise?

Provision device – Does the device have network connectivity in order to update and enroll successfully?

 

Module 1 Lesson 3 Answers

 

Q.2 – Apply your understanding of the tools we’ve just covered by matching the following situations to the tool that would best help you troubleshoot the issue. Drag and drop the tool to the scenario, then click submit.

Customer reports that whitelisted apps aren’t showing up in managed Google Play. Which tool would you use to ensure that managed Google Play can assign and make apps available to users? – Android Management Experience

Customer reports that a policy to disable the camera is only working on some devices. Which tool would you use to test policy problems? – TestDPC

Customer reports that configured apps are crashing and policies aren’t being applied, how would you test that the EMM console is configured correctly? – Android Management API colab

 

Module 1 Lesson 5 Review Answers

 

Q.1 – When a customer reports an issue, what do you follow to help you gather information? Select an answer, then submit.

(A) Watchpoints

(B) Problem solving framework

 

Q.2 – When escalating an issue, who would usually be the first partner you should escalate to? Select an answer, then submit.

• (A) Carrier/reseller
• (B) OEM
• (C) EMM
• (D) Google

 

Q.3 – When escalating a bug report to an EMM, best practice is to upload it to Google Drive or another cloud storage provider and share it from there. Select an answer, then submit.

• (A) True
• (B) False

 

Q.4 – Match each step in the problem solving framework with its corresponding description. Drag each answer to a box, then submit.

Compare the observed behavior against the expected behavior. – Describe behavior

Ask for screen captures, bug reports, and all other relevant information. – Gather data

Eliminate conflated issues or general confusion that misdiagnose root causes. – Trust but verify

Review common troubleshooting steps which may not apply to the issue or were skipped. – Review watchpoints

Consider the most common causes identified to narrow the scope of the issue. – Process of elimination

Identify systemic problems versus localized issues. – Reproduce issue

 

Module 2 Lesson 2 Answers

 

Q.1 – Match each provisioning method with its description. Select each box and make a selection, then submit.

NFC – Transfer configurations to a new device using NFC hardware.

QR Code – Scan a code to enroll a device using the device camera.

DPC Identifier – Users enter a code to install a specific EMM agent.

Zero-touch enrollment – Enroll devices in bulk with full management and no manual setup.

 

Q.2 – Select each box and enter the missing word, then submit.

What is the minimum OS that supports provisioning using a QR code? – 7.0

How many different methods could you use to provision a dedicated device running Android 7.0? – 3

 

Q.3 – True or False: Personal device (BYOD) work profiles can be deployed using NFC enrollment. Select the correct answer, then submit.

• (A) True
• (B) False

 

Q.4 – Why is zero-touch ideal for most fully managed device deployment scenarios? Select all answers that apply, then submit.

• (A) There’s no need for IT to physically handle the managed devices.
• (B) Device deployments are streamlined.
• (C) Configurations are automatically applied to devices on first boot.
• (D) Users can’t remove device management by simply factory resetting.

 

Module 2 Lesson 4 Answers

 

Q.1 – “I powered on the device and used the camera to scan the QR code but nothing happens.” Is this behavior: Select 1 answer, then submit.

• (A) Observed
• (B) Expected

 

Q.2 – The enrollment process should start after the device reads the QR code. Is this behavior: Select 1 answer, then submit.

• (A) Expected
• (B) Observed

 

Q.3 – When gathering data, both _____________and Android Management API Quickstart Colab can be used to test various enrollment methods. Select 1 answer, then submit.

• (A) Android Management Experience
• (B) TestDPC

 

Q.4 – Select the watchpoints that apply to provisioning troubleshooting. Select 5 answers, then submit.

The five answers are:

• Select/bind EMM
• Provision device
• Select OS version/device
• Create/sync users or groups
• Configure provisioning

 

Q.5 – Which watchpoints can be ruled out?

Select and bind your EMM – Does the EMM you use support QR Code provisioning?

Select OS version/device – Does the device support QR code enrollment?

Create/sync users or groups – Is the user set up to be able to enroll devices?

Configure provisioning – Are the DPC extras specified in the QR code valid?

Provision device – Does the device have network connectivity in order to download the DPC?

 

Q.6 – Which of the following additional steps should you take to try and resolve the issue? Select 2 answers, then submit.

• (A) Try regenerating the code
• (B) Test to see if NFC will work instead
• (C) Try on a different WiFi network, or using mobile data
• (D) Reach out to a carrier/reseller for additional support

 

Q.7 – If you were unable to resolve the QR code issue, where should you first escalate? Select 1 answer, then submit.

• (A) Carrier/reseller
• (B) OEM
• (C) EMM

 

Q.8 – What information should you include when you escalate? Select all answers that apply, then submit.

• (A) Screenshot of error
• (B) Bug report
• (C) QR code

 

Q.9 – “I turned on the device and connected to WiFi. The device goes straight to the Google account login without engaging the zero-touch setup.” Is this behavior: Select 1 answer, then submit.

• (A) Expected
• (B) Observed

 

Q.10 – “I turn on my device and connect to WiFi and the zero-touch process starts.” Is this behavior: Select 1 answer, then submit.

• (A) Observed
• (B) Expected

 

Q.11 – Which of the following information would be appropriate to gather? Select all answers that apply, then submit.

• (A) Screenshot
• (B) Zero-touch CSV export file
• (C) EMM configuration
• (D) Enrollment method
• (E) Bug report

 

Q.12 – Which of the following resources could be used to troubleshoot Hannah’s zero-touch issue? Select 1 answer, then submit.

• (A) Android Management Experience
• (B) Zero-touch portal
• (C) TestDPC
• (D) AM API Quickstart Colab

 

Q.13 – Select the watchpoints that apply to provisioning troubleshooting. Select 5 answers, then submit.

The five answers are:

• Create/sync users or groups
• Configure provisioning
• Provision device
• Select OS version/device
• Select/bind EMM

 

Q.14 – Match the suggested check with its corresponding watchpoint. Select each box and make a selection, then submit.

Select and bind your EMM – Does the EMM support zero-touch provisioning?

Select OS version/device – Is the device zero-touch compatible?

Create/sync users or groups – Are the correct IMEIs uploaded to the zero-touch portal? Is the user set up

Configure provisioning – Are the CSV values (e.g. IMEI, device model) entered correctly?

Provision device – Does the device have connectivity?

 

Q.15 – Which of the following additional steps should you take to try and resolve the issue? Select 1 answer, then submit.

• (A) Ask the customer to verify the device is showing in the zero-touch portal
• (B) Verify that the device supports zero-touch
• (C) Verify that EMM configuration is correct and applied
• (D) All of the above

 

Q.16 – Checking the zero-touch portal, we can see that the EMM configuration is…. Select 1 answer, then submit.

• (A) Applied
• (B) Not applied

 

Q.17 – Using the screenshot of the IMEI information from the device and from the zero-touch portal, what could be the issue? Select 1 answer, then submit.

• (A) Issue is unrelated
• (B) Zero-touch portal showing incorrect IMEI

 

Q.18 – Checking the screenshot of the device build information, we can also determine that… Select 2 answers, then submit.

• (A) Device model does not support zero-touch
• (B) The Kernel version does not match the OS version
• (C) Baseband version does not support WiFi
• (D) OS version does not support zero-touch

 

Q.19 – Zero-touch isn’t triggering on a Pixel 2, you have pulled zero-touch CSV export file and the IMEI is correct, what could be the cause of the issue? Select 1 answer, then submit.

• (A) The serial number of the device is not present
• (B) The model type is not present
• (C) The zero-touch CSV lists the incorrect manufacturer
• (D) Issue is unrelated

 

Q.20 – Where should you escalate to change the IMEI / manufacturer in the zero-touch portal? Select 1 answer, then submit.

• (A) Carrier/reseller
• (B) EMM
• (C) OEM

 

Module 2 Lesson 5 Review Answers

 

Q.1 – Which of the following methods allows devices to be provisioned in bulk without requiring manual set up? Select 1 answer, then submit.

• (A) DPC Identifier
• (B) Zero-touch
• (C) NFC
• (D) QR Code

 

Q.2 – Which of the following should organizations consider while preparing to provision devices? Select 3 answers, then submit.

• (A) If the OS supports the method
• (B) If the device supports the method
• (C) If the carrier/reseller supports the method
• (D) If the EMM supports the method

 

Module 3 Lesson 2 Answers

 

Q.1 – Match the description of each step in the managed configuration process to its corresponding section. Select each box and make a selection, then submit.

Developer – When a developer builds an app for Google Play, they must meet certain requirements.

App + Schema – An app schema is a set of policies an app is willing to accept. This is included when the app is uploaded to Google Play.

Schema – The EMM console can read an app’s schema and display it in their UI. This allows IT admins to set the app configurations like server, name, server config, or security policy.

Config – Once the app is properly configured, the EMM will save the configurations and send it back to Google Play.

Configured app – At the time of installation, Google Play will deliver the app and its saved configurations to the device, providing a seamless end-user experience.

 

Module 3 Lesson 4 Answers

 

Q.1 – I should be able to see the app in the managed Google Play store or it should already be installed on my device. Is this behavior: Select 1 answer, then submit.

• (A) Observed
• (B) Expected

 

Q.2 – I can’t find the private app I need for my job in the managed Google Play store and it has not silently installed on my device. Is this behavior: Select 1 answer, then submit.

• (A) Expected
• (B) Observed

 

Q.3 – Which of the following information would be appropriate to gather from James? Select 4 answers, then submit.

The four answers are:

• Bug report
• Package Names/IDs
• Play EMM API calls
• Enterprise, User, and Device IDs

 

Q.4 – Which of the following tools could you use to test James’ application problem? Select 2 answers, then submit.

• (A) Android Management Experience
• (B) TestDPC
• (C) AM API Quickstart Colab

 

Q.5 – Select the watchpoints that apply to application troubleshooting. Select 7 answers, then submit.

The seven answers are:

• Select OS version/device
• Select/bind EMM
• Create/sync users or groups
• Upload apps
• Set managed config
• Update apps/device
• Approve/assign apps

 

Q.6 – How could you rule out the following watchpoints? Select each box and make a selection, then submit.

Select/bind EMM – Is the enterprise still bound?

Select OS version/device – Is the application supported by the OS / device?

Create/sync users or groups – Is the application assigned to the correct users and/or groups?

Upload apps – Is the private app published and targeting your enterprise?

Approve/assign apps – Is the user able to find and install from the Play store?

Set managed config – Is the app configured correctly?

Update apps/device – Did the developer update the app and ask for additional permissions?

 

Q.7 – Which of the following additional steps should you take to try and resolve the issue? Select 1 answer, then submit.

• (A) Check if users have connectivity
• (B) Verify that there are no conflicting policies
• (C) Confirm the app is approved in the EMM console
• (D) All of the above

 

Q.8 – From the customer, you’ve managed to collect the following screenshots: 

1. The customer’s managed Google Play console

2. Device’s Play Store

3. The list of organization IDs in the Developer Google Play Console

4. Package ID

With this information, we can determine that… Select 1 answer, then submit.

(A) The Play Console isn’t listing the package ID

(B) The DPC has not been properly downloaded to the device

(C) The target organization has not been added to the list of approved organizations

(D) The package ID is incorrect

 

Q.9 – If this issue requires escalation, where should you escalate first? Select 1 answer, then submit.

• (A) Carrier/reseller
• (B) OEM
• (C) EMM

 

Q.10 – Which of the following is the best way to describe the behavior? Select 1 answer, then submit.

• (A) Customer is using Android 7.0 devices that should support G Suite apps, but they keep crashing.
• (B) Each time users open G Suite applications (Docs, Sheets, Slides, etc.) the apps prompt users to log into a personal Gmail account. Customer expects them to work only in an “offline” mode.
• (C) G Suite apps are crashing.
• (D) Customer wants G Suite apps to work on their devices.

 

Q.11 – When gathering data, what crucial data point will provide you with device make/model, list of apps on device, app permissions, and network information? Select 1 answer, then submit.

• (A) Bug report
• (B) Logcat

 

Q.12 – Suppose you had none of the following tools setup. Which would be the easiest to setup and allow you to test Lizzie’s app issue? Select 1 answer, then submit.

• (A) AM API Quickstart Colab
• (B)TestDPC
• (C) Android Management Experience

 

Q.13 – Select the watchpoints that apply to troubleshooting Lizzie’s problem. Select 6 answers, then submit.

The six answers are:

• Select/bind EMM
• Create/sync users or groups
• Update apps/device
• Set managed config
• Approve/assign apps
• Select OS version/device

 

Q.14 – Match the suggested check with its corresponding watchpoint. Select each box and make a selection, then submit.

Select/bind EMM – Is there a Google account on the device?

Select OS version/device – Does the app support the OS on the device?

Create/sync users or groups – Is the app approved for the user?

Approve/assign apps – Has the app being whitelisted in the managed Play Store?

Set managed config – Does the app require a specific configuration to function?

Update apps/device – Have app permissions recently changed?

 

Q.15 – Which of the following are within your ability to check when attempting to reproduce the issue. Select 2 answers, then submit.

• (A) Verify the user login credentials to the app are correct
• (B) Check the app’s managed configuration to see if it supports an “offline” mode and if it’s set correctly
• (C) Verify the app permissions have been set up correctly
• (D) Confirm that the app is approved in the EMM console

 

Q.16 – Which of the following screenshots shows the correct managed configuration for Google Docs that would answer Lizzie’s organization requirements? Select 1 answer, then submit.

• (A) First Image
• (B) Second Image
• (C) Third Image

 

Q.17 – What information should you include if you needed to escalate to the EMM? Select 4 answers, then submit.

The four answers are:

• Screenshot or text of error encountered
• Bug report
• Reproduction steps taken
• App policy set on EMM console

 

Module 3 Lesson 5 Review Answers

 

Q.1 – Which of the following watchpoints should you consider when troubleshooting an application issue? Select 2 answers, then submit.

• (A) Set device policies
• (B) Set managed config
• (C) Select/bind EMM
• (D) Provision device

 

Q.2 – Which tools will help to identify the source of an application issue? Select 2 answers, then submit.

• (A) TestDPC
• (B) Android Management Experience
• (C) AM API Quickstart Colab

 

Q.3 – True or False: Some EMMs support managed Google Play through an iFrame, providing a managed Google Play experience directly from the console. Select 1 answer, then submit.

• (A) True
• (B) False

 

Module 4 Lesson 4 Answers

 

Q.1 – Users shouldn’t be able to connect devices to Bluetooth or access Bluetooth settings. Is this behavior: Select 1 answer, then submit.

• (A) Expected
• (B) Observed

 

Q.2 – Some users are able to access Bluetooth in the settings, turn it on and connect devices. Is this behavior: Select 1 answer, then submit.

• (A) Expected
• (B) Observed

 

Q.3 – Select the following information that would be appropriate to gather from Steve. Select 4 answers, then submit.

The four answers are:

• Screenshot or text of error encountered
• Bug report
• Policy set on EMM console
• Model/Manufacturer, OS version

 

Q.4 – Which of the following tools could you use to test Steve’s policy problem? Select 2 answers, then submit.

• (A) AM API Quickstart Colab
• (B) TestDPC
• (C) Android Management Experience

 

Q.5 – Select the watchpoints that apply to policy troubleshooting. Select 5 answers, then submit.

The five answers are:

• Update apps/device
• Select/bind EMM
• Select OS version/device
• Create/sync users or groups
• Set device policies

 

Q.6 – Match the suggested check with its corresponding watchpoint. Select each box and make a selection, then submit.

Select/bind EMM – Does the EMM support this policy?

Select OS version/device – Is the compliance policy only available on a specific OS version?

Create/sync users or groups – Does the policy target the desired user or user group?

Set device policies – Is the correct policy active and pushed to affected devices?

Update apps/device – Is there an OS update or security patch available that resolves the issue?

 

Q.7 – Answer the questions using the bug report snippets above as a resource. Select each box and make a selection, then submit.

What is the OS running on the device where Bluetooth is disabled? – 8.1.0

What is the OS running on the device where Bluetooth is still enabled? – 7.1.2

 

Q.8 – What is the API level that corresponds to Android 8.0? Select 1 answer, then submit.

• (A) API level 25
• (B) API level 26
• (C) API level 27
• (D) API level 28

 

Q.9 – Taking our answers from the previous activity, why would the Bluetooth policy not be applied to a number of the devices? Select 1 answer, then submit.

• (A) The no_bluetooth policy has a minimum supported OS of 8.0 so devices running 7.0 will need to be updated or replaced.
• (B) The bug reports indicate that both are dedicated devices so any Bluetooth policy is redundant.
• (C) The no_config_bluetooth policy has a minimum supported OS of 8.0 so the issue will need to be escalated to the EMM.
• (D) The no_bluetooth and no_config_bluetooth policies are conflicting and one needs to be removed.

 

Q.10 – Which of the following additional steps should you take to try and resolve the issue? Select 1 answer, then submit.

• (A) Check the policy properly configured
• (B) Verify the policy supported by the EMM
• (C) Confirm the phone has network connectivity for the policy to be applied
• (D) All of the above

 

Q.11 – Since the policy is not supported by the minimum OS on the device, would you resolve the issue or escalate to a partner? Select 1 answer, then submit.

• (A) Escalate to carrier/reseller
• (B) Resolve issue
• (C) Escalate to OEM
• (D) Escalate to EMM

 

Q.12 – A WiFi configuration was pushed out via the EMM instance that would automatically connect users to the recently upgraded office network. Is this behavior: Select 1 answer, then submit.

• (A) Observed
• (B) Expected

 

Q.13 – The WiFi configuration policy has been pushed out to users with incorrect data. Users can’t access the network. Is this behavior: Select 1 answer, then submit.

• (A) Observed
• (B) Expected

 

Q.14 – Select the following information that would be appropriate to gather from Linda. Select 4 answers, then submit.

The four answers are:

• Policy set on EMM console
• Screenshot or text of error encountered
• Bug report
• Model/Manufacturer, OS version

 

Q.15 – When reading a bug report, what section of a bug report shows which restrictions the DPC has applied? Select 1 answer, then submit.

• (A) DUMP OF SERVICE activity
• (B) DUMP OF SERVICE account
• (C) DUMP OF SERVICE device_policy

 

Q.16 – Suppose you had none of the following tools setup. Which would be the easiest to setup and allow you to test Linda’s WiFi  issue? Select 1 answer, then submit.

• (A) TestDPC
• (B) Android Management Experience
• (C) AM API Quickstart Colab

 

Q.17 – Select the watchpoints that apply to policy troubleshooting. Select 4 answers, then submit.

The four answers are:

• Create/sync users or groups
• Set device policies
• Select OS version/device
• Select/bind EMM

 

Q.18 – Match the suggested check with its corresponding watchpoint. Select each box and make a selection, then submit.

Does the EMM support this policy? – Select/bind EMM

Does the device support the network you’re trying to configure? – Select OS version/device

Does the policy target the desired user or user group? – Create/sync users or groups

Is the correct policy active and pushed to affected devices and is the SSID and password correct? – Set device policies

 

Q.19 – Which of the following additional steps should you take to try and resolve the issue? Select 1 answer, then submit.

• (A) Is the policy properly configured in the EMM?
• (B) Check the EMM Solutions directory – is the policy supported by the EMM?
• (C) Does the device/OS support the network you’re trying to configure?
• (D) Is the correct policy set?
• (E) Is there a policy conflict (multiple policies targeting the same device)?
• (F) All of the above

 

Q.20 – Is the WiFi configuration correct? Select 1 answer, then submit.

• (A) Incorrect
• (B) Correct

 

Q.21 – If incorrect, which part of the configuration needs to be changed? Select 1 answer, then submit.

• (A) SSID
• (B) Security type
• (C) WiFi password
• (D) Nothing – the configuration is setup correctly

 

Q.22 – Given the troubleshooting steps taken, would you resolve or escalate to a partner? Select 1 answer, then submit.

• (A) Escalate to OEM
• (B) Escalate to EMM
• (C) Resolve issue
• (D) Escalate to carrier/reseller

 

Module 4 Lesson 5 Review Answers

 

Q.1 – True or False: EMM support is always the first step of escalation when troubleshooting management policies. Select 1 answer, then submit.

• (A) True
• (B) False

 

Q.2 – When troubleshooting a policy related issue, which of the following would be valid watchpoints to consider? Select 2 answers, then submit.

• (A) Set device policies
• (B) Upload apps
• (C) Select/bind EMM
• (D) Provision device

 

Q.3 – What’s a policy that can only be set on a work profile? Select 1 answer, then submit.

• (A) Disable screenshot
• (B) Cross profile contact sync
• (C) Verify apps enforcement
• (D) Certificate Installation

 

Android Enterprise Support Engineer Final Assessment Answers

Module 5 Final Review Answers

 

Q.1 – All Microsoft Exchange email should be visible in Gmail for all users. Is this behavior: Select 1 answer, then submit.

• (A) Expected
• (B) Observed

 

Q.2 – After setting up Gmail on end-users’ devices to sync their Microsoft Exchange accounts, users are reporting that they can’t see some of their emails in Gmail. Is this behavior: Select 1 answer, then submit.

• (A) Expected
• (B) Observed

 

Q.3 – Select the following information that would be appropriate to gather from Steve. Select 6 answers, then submit.

The six answers are:

• Affected devices model/OS
• Managed app configuration
• Screenshots
• Bug report
• In-app feedback 
• Play EMM API calls

 

Q.4 – When gathering managed app configuration data, is it best to request this from users or check the EMM console directly? Select 1 answer, then submit.

• (A) Check the EMM console
• (B) Ask the user

 

Q.5 – Which of the following tools could Tomas use to test the Gmail app? Select 2 answers, then submit.

• (A) AM API Quickstart Colab
• (B) TestDPC
• (C) Android Management Experience

 

Q.6 – Select the watchpoints that apply to application troubleshooting. Select 4 answers, then submit.

The four answers are:

• Select/bind EMM
• Update apps/device
• Set managed config
• Set device policies

 

Q.7 – What watchpoints can be ruled out? Select each box and make a selection, then submit.

Select/bind EMM – Is the enterprise still bound so that managed configurations can be pushed?

Set device policy – Are any policies interfering with connectivity? Are the correct certificate(s) on the device, if needed?

Set managed config – Is the managed app configuration correct? (e.g. server URL, sync window, etc)

Update apps/device – Did the Exchange environment, the Gmail app, or the managed app config change recently?

 

Q.8 – Which of the following additional steps should you take to try and resolve the issue? Select 1 answer, then submit.

• (A) Check if users have connectivity
• (B) Verify that there are no conflicting policies
• (C) Check Gmails configurations and sync window settings
• (D) All of the above

 

Q.9 – Tomas has provided a screenshot of the Gmail app from a user’s device and of Gmail’s Managed Configuration settings. Using the screenshots, identify what may be causing the issue. Select 1 answer, then submit.

• (A) The hostname is incorrect
• (B) SSL Required should be off
• (C) There’s no default email signature
• (D) The username is incorrect
• (E) The user logged into Gmail with an incorrect email address
• (F) There’s no Login Certificate Alias
• (G) Default Sync Window is too narrow
• (H) The email address in Managed Configuration is incorrect

 

Q.10 – What setting would you recommend for Tomas’s organization to use to resolve the issue and enable users to receive emails on their devices in real time? Select 1 answer, then submit.

• (A) 3
• (B) 4
• (C) 0
• (D) 2
• (E) 5
• (F) 1

 

Q.11 – If this doesn’t resolve the issue, it will require escalation. Where should you escalate first? Select 1 answer, then submit.

• (A) Escalate to carrier/reseller
• (B) Escalate to EMM
• (C) Escalate to OEM

 

Q.12 – What information should you include if you needed to escalate to the EMM? Select 4 answers, then submit.

The 4 answers are:

• Play EMM API calls
• Bug report
• App policy set on EMM console
• Reproduction steps taken

 

Q.13 – Amy should be able to search for work contacts from the personal contacts app, and work contact info should display when calls are received from work contacts. Is this behavior: Select 1 answer, then submit.

• (A) Observed
• (B) Expected

 

Q.14 – Work contacts are not found when searched for, and caller ID does not display information for work contacts when calls are received. Is this behavior: Select 1 answer, then submit.

• (A) Observed
• (B) Expected

 

Q.15 – Select the following information that would be appropriate to gather if we need to escalate the issue. Select 4 answers, then submit.

The four answers are:

• Policy details
• Contacts / dialer app information
• Bug report
• Screenshot

 

Q.16 – When gathering data, where could you pull the policy information from? Select 2 answers, then submit.

• (A) EMM console
• (B) Bug report
• (C) Zero-touch CSV export file
• (D) Logcat

 

Q.17 – Select the watchpoints that apply to troubleshooting Amy’s problem. Select 4 answers, then submit.

The 4 answers are:

• Select OS version/device
• Set device policies
• Update apps/device
• Select/bind EMM

 

Q.18 – Match the suggested question with its corresponding watchpoint. Select each box and make a selection, then submit.

Does the EMM support cross profile contacts and caller ID policies? – Select/bind EMM

Does the device support contact search in work profiles? – Select OS version/device

Are cross profile caller ID and cross profile contact search policies applied? – Set device policies

Does the app cross profile caller ID and contacts search? Is there an app update pending? – Update app/device

 

Q.19 – Checking the bug report, where would you expect to see if a policy restriction had been pushed to the device? Select 1 answer, then submit.

• (A) DUMP OF SERVICE account
• (B) DUMP OF SERVICE crossprofileapps
• (C) DUMP OF SERVICE device_policy
• (D) DUMP OF SERVICE connectivity

 

Q.20 – Using the Feature List resource, select the feature that controls contact sharing from a work profile. Select 1 answer, then submit.

• (A) Cross-profile data management
• (B) Cross-profile contact management

 

Q.21 – From the bug report snippet, has the policy been applied? Select 1 answer, then submit.

• (A) The policy has not been applied to the device
• (B) The policy has been applied to the device but isn’t working

 

Q.22 – If policies have not been applied would you escalate or resolve the issue? Select 1 answer, then submit.

• (A) Resolve issue
• (B) Escalate to carrier/reseller
• (C) Escalate to OEM / app developer
• (D) Escalate to EMM

 

Q.23 – If policies have been correctly applied but contacts are still not searchable, where would you escalate this issue? Select 2 answers, then submit.

• (A) Escalate to OEM / app developer
• (B) Escalate to EMM
• (C) Escalate to carrier/reseller
• (D) Resolve issue

 

 

Android Enterprise Support Engineer Answers

 

 

HubSpot Digital Marketing Answers

 

• There are 60 questions.
• The exam takes about 1 hour to complete.
• You must answer 45 questions correctly to pass.
• You must wait 12 hours between attempts.
• You have 3 hours to complete the exam.

Exam URL: https://academy.hubspot.com/courses/digital-marketing

 

 

Get All Hubspot Answers

 

 

Fill in the blank: To keep your content calendar agile, it shouldn’t extend more than ___________.

 

Fill in the blank: ________ refers to how well a document matches a search query.

 

Which of the following is an example of a video in the attract stage?

 

Fill in the blank: The following sentence is an example of ____________ voice? “The grocery shopping was done by your father.”

 

When auditing your social media content, what questions should you be looking to answer? Choose all that apply.

 

Having an understanding of what you’re trying to achieve is the most important part of creating high-performing emails. What theme does this correlate to?

 

Fill in the blank: Words like “free” or “percent off” may not trigger spam filters for your email, but could ___________.

 

What is the benefit of including ad extensions in your search ads?

 

If you have a keyword set to broad match, but you want to select specific keywords that must be included in the search query for your ad to be displayed, what would you use?

 

How could this sentence be corrected to cut out fluffy words? “I really just want to go to the arcade to play games in order to have fun.”

 

Fill in the blank: A keyword set to _____ match type will display your ad if the search term contains the same order of the words, but it can also contain additional words.

 

To help increase awareness for an upcoming product launch, your manager increases paid promotion funds by 300%. Which channels could you disperse these funds to?

 

Which KPI is most likely to be a vanity metric?

 

True or false? You should post the same message across all of your social channels.

 

Which of the following is an example of a video in the delight stage?

 

All of the following are attributes of a content creation workflow EXCEPT:

 

All of the following impact a website’s ability to rank on a search engine results page EXCEPT:

 

What are the three stages of the buyer’s journey?

 

True or false? A content offer is something you create and publish in exchange for personal information, like an email address and a name.

 

You asked your colleague to provide feedback on a blog post you recently wrote. When they sent you their feedback, they made edits directly in the doc. Is this a best practice for a content editing process?

 

What can you do to make a headline more compelling?

 

True or false? Your content creation framework should stay consistent over time.

 

True or false? A benefit of organic content promotion is the ability to develop and deliver highly targeted content to consumers who will find the content most relevant.

• True
• False

 

True or false? You should use a consistent naming system to store and easily identify hosted files.

• True
• False

 

True or false? If you want to produce great content, then you need to hire an in-house content creator.

• True
• False

 

Fill in the blank: When creating a headline for your content, you should come up with ___________ different headlines.

True or false? Effective writers start by filling in the main points of their content and save writing the introduction and conclusion for after they’ve written their piece.

 

True or false? When possible, you should try and use extensive vocabulary in your writing.

 

True or false? Never use acronyms in your writing.

 

Which network has the longest life for a piece of content?

On which social network should you share content most frequently?

• Facebook
• LinkedIn
• Twitter
• Pinterest

 

What does CRM stand for?

Custom Rendering for Mobile
Custom Relationship Modules
Customer Relationship Management
Customer Rotation Model

 

There are three key components to sending the right email. Two of them are the right email and the right time. What is the third?

The right person
The right segments
The right email platform
The right buyer personas

 

What occurs during the attract stage of the inbound methodology?

You answer questions and provide solutions for the challenges your prospects and customers face.
You focus on bringing prospects and customers to your social pages or website through relevant and helpful content.
You exceed a prospect or customer’s expectations so much that they’ll want to tell their friends and family about you.
You collect information about the individual you’re working with.

 

When does the engage stage of the inbound methodology begin?

The engage stage begins when a purchase occurs.
The engage stage begins when a customer leaves you.
The engage stage begins when a prospect or customer takes a desired action.
The engage stage begins when a prospect or customer proposes you give them a discount.

 

What is the purpose of the delight stage of the inbound methodology?

To exceed expectations
To provide an outstanding experience every time a prospect or customer interacts with your company
To go the extra step to ensure a prospect or customer accomplishes what they set out to do
All of the above

 

Fill in the blanks: Tail winds are to ________ : as headwinds are to _________.

Forces, friction.
Friction, force.
Ships, force.
Ships, friction.

 

What is the difference between a brand keyword and a non-brand keyword?

A brand keyword is more expensive, a non-brand keyword is less expensive
A brand keyword receives less traffic, a non-brand keyword receives more traffic
A brand keyword has more variations, a non-brand keyword has fewer variations
A brand keyword includes a brand’s name, a non-brand keyword does not include a brand’s name

 

Fill in the blank: A keyword set to _____ match type will display your ad if the search term includes that keyword, or a very close variation.

broad
exact
specific
negative

 

Which of the following represents an exact match keyword?

“dog treats”
[dog treats]
dog treats
-dog treats

 

Which of the following represents a phrase match keyword?

+smart tv
-smart tv
[smart tv]
“smart tv”

 

Which of the following represents a broad match keyword?

wall art
“wall art”
wall +art
-wall art

 

What symbol would you use to add a broad match modifier?

/
^
+
–

 

What symbol would you use to add a negative keyword?

/
^
+
–

 

True or false: Quality score is an algorithm that scores each of your search ads on spelling and grammar.

• True
• False

 

From top to bottom, what should your search account structure hierarchy look like?

Campaigns, ad groups, keywords
Ad groups, campaigns, keywords
Keywords, campaigns, ad groups
Keywords, ad groups, campaigns

 

How many ad extensions should you include in your search ads?

2
3
5
All that are available
As many as many as make sense for your business

 

The inbound methodology is meant to support which business functions?

Marketing
Sales
Service
A and B
All of the above

 

Scenario: Kyle is in a new role and looking to upskill, so he goes to Google to do some research. He finds a search engine listing that piques his interest and clicks it. He’s taken to a blog post on your site. He reads the post and sees there’s a content offer. He’s interested, but not sure he’s ready to give his information for it just yet. Below the offer, he sees a chatbot asking if he needs help so he clicks it to start a conversation. Which stage of the inbound methodology is Kyle in?

Awareness
Attract
Engage
Decision
Delight

 

What does it mean to have an inbound approach to doing business?

Your business only runs ads that boost top-performing social media posts.
Your business only focuses on an organic marketing strategy as opposed to interrupting them with ads.
Your business focuses on empowering your prospects and customers, rather than forcing them to engage with you.
Your business’s word-of-mouth is so strong that you don’t have to do any form of marketing or advertising.

 

Fill in the blank: When planning the timing of content in a calendar, _______.

stick to a schedule and hold your team accountable to their deadlines
create focus by only working on one project at a time
remain flexible to account for changes
have your team submit ideas they want to work on

 

What stage of the buyer’s journey is your audience in if they’re choosing a free trial or consultation?

Awareness
Engage
Decision
Delight

 

True or false? Relevancy directly impacts ranking strength.

• True
• False

 

Fill in the blank: Once a search engine bot discovers your web page, it _______.

checks to see if the content is unique from its database of content
checks to see if it can read all forms of media included within the page
decides how relevant it is to certain search queries by indexing it based on signals like keywords used within it
adds a cookie to it to come back later if it intends to rank it in the top 100

 

Fill in the blank: Measuring your website’s authority comes down to assessing the volume and quality of the ____________.

title tags that are optimized for SEO
pages your website ranks for on the first page of search engines
backlinks you have to your website
content that exists on your website

 

Scenario: Your business is going through a website redesign. The goal of the redesign is to update the look and feel of the website to better represent the brand. Your manager recommends a custom font to help make the content stand out. How should you respond?

“That sounds great. Do we have a size and preferred color for this custom font?”
“To save budget on a custom font, we should consider purchasing another brand’s custom font and making updates to it.”
“We should consider using a Google font because they’re accessible to all web browsers.”

 

True or false? To help improve SEO, your URL should match the title of your blog post, word for word.

• True
• False

 

Fill in the blank: The ideal blog post title is _____ characters.

15
60
75
90

 

Which of the following is an example of a video in the engage stage?

A promotional video featured on a landing page
A social video that shows off your brand’s personality
A testimonial of one of your customers with relatable stories
A funny video of a cat sitting on a window sill

 

Fill in the blank: Videos related to __________ moments address company milestones, new product or service features, or other company-related updates.

brand
business
entertainment
sales

 

True or false? Watching three seconds of a YouTube video is considered a view.

• True
• False

 

Your manager asks your thoughts on how to increase visibility on the business’s YouTube channel. Which response best aligns with how YouTube’s algorithm works?

• “YouTube as a channel is not worth the investment. There are far more valuable channels with SEO benefits that the business should focus on.”
• “While views are important, YouTube rewards videos with the most clicks. The more people that start watching a video, the more YouTube will feature your video.”
• “YouTube wants viewers to watch videos all the way through. We should focus on creating more engaging video content.”

 

All of the following are key places your videos can appear on YouTube EXCEPT:

In search results
On the homepage
On a sponsored page
In the trending system
In subscriptions

 

Your manager tasks you with getting more of your web pages displayed in the featured snippet on a search engine results page. The best way to increase the number of your web pages that appear in featured snippets is by _______?

• answering a question in the form of a detailed list
• asking questions in your H4 headers
• embedding social media posts throughout your content
• creating a title tag with your primary keyword featured near the beginning of it

 

Which of these KPIs demonstrate social media ROI? Choose all that apply.

Direct sales revenue from social media, such as orders that come in from a coupon or links into your website that lead to purchase.
Lead conversions from social media campaigns. This may vary from company to company but could include email signups, downloads of materials like an ebook, or activations of trial software.
Customer ratings and reviews demonstrate strong engagement and opinion. They are also one of the biggest indicators to other people that a product or a service is worth buying.
Customer satisfaction – it’s often tracked with a net promoter score (often called NPS), this gives you a sense of whether or not your social customer service efforts are working.

 

Which of the following places on Instagram can you use a link to click through to your website? Choose all that apply.

Stories
Bio
Post copy
Advertisement

 

In order to include a link in a Story, Instagram requires business accounts to have ____ followers.

500
1,000
5,000
10,000

 

True or false? When getting started with a business Instagram account, consider purchasing at least 1,000 followers to make your brand look more credible and acquire followers at a faster rate.

• True
• False

 

True or false? Adding a string of meaningless numbers to your Instagram username could appear spammy.

• True
• False

 

Scenario: Tom is an avid Facebook user. Tom’s friend, Jane, posts a video from a travel-focused company called Get Out, Stay Out, about a new, local hiking trail. In the comments, Jane shares her thoughts and opinions about the trail. The following day, Tom’s sister sends him the same video link through Facebook Messenger. The Facebook algorithm sees all these interactions. Keeping this in mind, it’s likely Facebook will _______.

Send Tom a Facebook message with a detailed map of the trail
Send Tom an email with a detailed map of the trail
Feature a detailed map of the trail as an advertisement to Tom
Feature the post at the top of Tom’s news feed

 

True or false? You shouldn’t join a competitor’s Facebook Group. Doing so would only help increase their visibility, making it harder for you to create and grow a Facebook Group for your business.

• True
• False

 

True or false? You can have more than one key result per objective.

• True
• False

 

Scenario: An exact-match keyword for one of your ads is “blue women’s t-shirts.” Which of the following search queries would generate this ad? Choose all that apply.

Blue women’s t-shirts
Blue women’s t-shirt
Blue t-shirts
Women’s t-shirts
Women’s t-shirt

 

Scenario: A phrase-match keyword for one of your ads is “traveling in Boston.” Which of the following search queries would generate this ad? Choose all that apply.

Traveling in Boston
Traveling in Boston during the winter
Travel in Boston during the winter
Where to travel in Boston
What’s it like to travel in Boston

 

True or false? To deliver an ad only to people searching for dress shoes for men, you could modify your broad match keyword to “+men’s dress shoes.”

• True
• False

 

True or false? If you’re just starting out with paid ads and don’t know exactly how your persona will be searching, move from a narrower search to a broad match.

• True
• False

 

What are the two key actions to look at when optimizing each part of your email?

The segment and the open
The open and the click
The contacts and the goal
The subject line and the preview text

 

Fill in the blank: The ideal length of an email subject line is _____ characters.

41–50
55–75
10–20
75–100

 

To provide a personalized experience to your email reader, which of the following best practices should you employ? Select all that apply.

Add the contact’s first name
Mention their interests
Mention the exact pages they’ve visited on your site
Mention an action the contact has taken with their company

 

Which of the following is NOT an example of owned media?

Your website
Social media profile
Sponsored content
Blog Content

 

Which of the following is NOT an example of paid media?

Guest blog posts
Boosted Facebook posts
Google Ads
Sponsored content

 

True or false: You should include either budget information or a time estimate in your content creation plan.

• True
• False

 

When is the most effective time to boost content on social media?

 

True or false? As buying behavior changes, the inbound philosophy will also evolve.

• True
• False

 

What is one benefit of running search ads for brand keywords?

 

Which of the following is the best practice for optimizing the elements on a web page to reduce page size?

 

What’s an example of a measurable key result? Choose all that apply.

 

Which of the following factors does YouTube pay attention to as part of its algorithm?

 

Fill in the blank: When performing a social media content audit, begin by looking at all of the content you’ve posted in the last _________.

 

___________ characters is the average character length that will appear on a mobile device for your email.

10-15
23-36
41-50
50-65

 

Fill in the blank: A keyword set to ______ match type will display your ad when the search term contains any or some combination or variations of the words in your keyword, in any order.

 

True or false? The holistic social media team model is common in growing companies. In this model, one team coordinates the approach to managing each social media account in partnership with other groups within the organization.

• True
• False

 

During the decision stage of the buyer’s journey, it’s effective to use which of the following content formats? Select all that apply.

 

 

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Hubspot SEO Certification Answers

 

Here’s what you should know before taking this exam:
There are 60 questions.
The exam takes about 1 hour to complete.
You must answer 45 questions correctly to pass.
You must wait 12 hours between attempts.
You have 3 hours to complete the exam.

 

Get All Hubspot Answers

 

 

True or False? Authority directly impacts ranking strength.

• True
• False

 

 

True or False? Don’t use a page’s URL as your link description.

• True
• False

 

What do you need to balance when doing SEO?

• Focusing on the user and making it easy for search engines to crawl your website
• Creating lots of high quality content and personalizing it for your buyer personas
• Adding more content to your website and focusing on your social media presence
• Focusing on search engine crawlers and making it easy to share your content

 

Dr. Dave Driscoll, a very credible and well respected authority on dentistry, just linked to a blog post that you wrote about how to floss from his website. When Google assesses the authority of your post and recognizes the link from Dr. Driscoll’s website, which search engine function is at play?

• Crawling
• Ranking
• Discovering
• Indexing

 

You’re trying to rank for one of your target topics using a web page that contains a long, canonical piece of written content. However, when you do your research on what’s already ranking for that topic by searching for it on Google, you notice that the majority of search results on page one are videos. Which of the following actions will give your website the best chance of ranking for this topic?

• Do nothing. Because your web page is a lengthy piece of written content, Google will have more text to crawl – so eventually, it will rank your page above the video results.
• Delete the written content, and replace it with a video version of that content on the same URL. Because Google is serving up mostly videos on page 1 for this particular topic, the written content doesn’t have a place.
• Create a video about that topic, and add it to your existing written page. Because Google is serving up mostly videos on page one for this particular topic, you’ll want to have a video in there – but that doesn’t mean having written content to supplement it won’t help.

 

What is the primary goal of a search engine?

• To drive the most amount of traffic to their own pages
• To serve users the most relevant content that matches their search query
• To personalize search results for individual users
• To index pages as fast as possible

 

True or False? The same SEO strategy will yield the same results for all websites.

• True
• False

 

Choose all that apply. Which of these factors will affect your SEO strategy?

• How established your business is online
• What resources you have to dedicate to SEO
• How many followers you have on social media
• What industry you’re in

 

Choose all that apply. Which of these are important KPIs to consider for SEO?

• Organic traffic
• Keyword ranking
• Bounce rate
• Content length
• Page load time

 

Choose all that apply. How do you determine the authority of a piece of content?

• The content is optimized for search engines.
• The content is talked about often.
• The content is referred to often.
• The content is cited in other works.

 

Choose all that apply. What does your backlink profile measure?

• The number of outbound links from your website to other sites.
• The number of inbound links to your website.
• The number of unique domains that link to your website.
• The quality of inbound links to your website.

 

True or False? You should optimize a single page for multiple keywords.

• True
• False

 

Choose all that apply. Why are internal links important for SEO?

• They help users and search engine crawlers navigate your site.
• They tell search engine crawlers which content should not be indexed.
• They pass link authority from one page to another.
• They allow your pages to appear in search engine results.

 

True or False? You should use hyphens, underscores, or spaces between the words in your URLs.

• True
• False

 

When should you use a robots.txt file?

• When you have multiple versions of a page to indicate the preferred version
• When your website receives a penalty from Google
• When you have pages that you don’t want search engines to crawl and index
• Whenever you feel like it

 

Choose all that apply. Why is it important to have HTTPS for your website?

• It encrypts sensitive data, like passwords and credit card numbers.
• It’s required by Google.
• It increases users’ trust in your website.
• It prevents your site from receiving inadvertent penalties.

 

What is the purpose of a 301 redirect?

• To temporarily redirect users from one URL to another
• To prevent search engine crawlers from indexing a page
• To resolve duplicate content issues
• To permanently redirect users from one URL to another

 

Choose all that apply. Which of these are ways to increase your site speed?

• Compress images
• Upload images at the exact dimensions they’ll be used
• Add pages to your robots.txt file
• Reduce the number of backlinks to your pages

 

What are the two biggest factors in the mobile user experience of your website?

• Site speed and pop-ups
• Responsive design and backlinks
• Site speed and responsive design
• Image compression and redirects

 

Which of these teams is NOT involved in the creation of a sitemap?

• Marketing
• Development
• Sales
• Legal
• IT

 

True or False? The further away a page is from the homepage, the worse it is for that page’s SEO.

• True
• False

 

Choose all that apply. When should you submit your sitemap to Google and other search engines?

• When you first publish your website
• When you publish a new web page
• When you make a significant change to your site structure
• When you redesign your website

 

The different types of keywords are:

• Fat head, chunky middle, body keywords
• Head terms, chunky middle, topic keywords
• Head terms, body keywords, long-tail keywords
• Body keywords, chunky middle, long-tail keywords

 

What stage of the buyer’s journey is someone searching for “what is inbound marketing?” likely in?

• Awareness
• Consideration
• Decision
• None of the above

 

True or False? You should emulate the top-ranking content for your target keyword, but offer unique value.

• True
• False

 

Sam is the marketing director for StyleHub, a clothing boutique. They opened their brick and mortar store last year, but Sam only published the website a month ago and it isn’t receiving much traffic yet. Now, they’re ready to focus on SEO and have some resources to dedicate to it. Which three tactics should Sam focus on initially?

• Creating a series of blog posts and pillar pages; Reaching out to journalists for backlinks; Running a keyword competitive analysis
• Implementing structured data on the website; Optimizing the load time of the website; Guest blogging for other relevant, authoritative websites
• Optimizing the website to follow on-page SEO best practices; Making the website mobile-responsive; Setting up a Google My Business profile

 

Which of these is an example of a long-tail keyword?

• Glasses
• Do I need glasses
• Women’s eye glasses
• What does my glasses prescription mean

 

What was the purpose of the Google Hummingbird algorithm update?

• Associating past search history with similar themes and pulling together keywords and phrases
• Parsing out phrases rather than focusing on specific search queries
• Targeting link spam and manipulative link-building practices
• Serving up more personalized and relevant search results

 

What is a pillar page?

• A structural strategy to organize the information architecture of your website
• A page such as your home page which links out to a large number of other pages on your site
• A way to organize a site’s content pages using a cleaner and more deliberate site architecture
• A website page that covers a specific topic in depth and is linked to a cluster of related content

 

Google measures how interesting other people think your content is through ___.

• Links
• Backlinks
• Social shares
• Page views

 

True or False? Google doesn’t care about the quality of backlinks, only the quantity.

• True
• False

 

What kind of content is most likely to be organically linked to?

• Informational content
• Promotional content
• Clickbait content
• All content is equally likely to be linked to.

 

How many links does it take to rank high in search results?

• The same number of links that other pages on your site have
• More links than your highest-ranking page has
• The same number of links that the results ranking on page one have
• None of the above

 

True or False? All link-building tactics require building a relationship in order to work.

• True
• False

 

When building a relationship with the goal of receiving backlinks, what is the first thing you should do?

• Request a link from them
• Deliver value to them
• Pitch an idea for a piece they can write
• Tell them how important you are

 

Choose all that apply. What are the most important things to do when replying to press request alerts?

• Respond quickly
• Include an image or video
• Give the journalist exactly the information they want
• Make sure they know how authoritative your site is

 

True or False? Backlinks build authority.

• True
• False

 

True or False? The majority of SERPs include some type of rich results.

• True
• False

 

What are rich results?

• Google’s response to a user’s search query
• Visually enhanced search results that provide supplemental information to the title, URL, and meta description of a web page
• A standardized format for providing information about a page and classifying the page content
• A markup language

 

Jo is a marketer at Papier, a stationery company that does most of their business online. Jo has noticed that Papier is falling behind their competitors in search results and wants to improve their ranking and clickthrough rate. How should Jo go about optimizing the Papier website for this goal?

• Add structured data to the product pages to display reviews and ratings data in rich results, and optimize the pages’ meta descriptions.
• Implement a topic cluster content strategy to create blog posts and a pillar page on the topic of stationery.
• Submit their sitemap to Google Search Console and resolve any duplicate content issues and crawling errors.

 

What is Schema.org?

• A standardized format for providing information about a page and classifying the page content
• A website where you can input a type of structured data and generate completed markup for your page
• The organization that creates the standardized language and rules used for structured data
• Google’s proprietary source of structured data

 

When should you decide to work with a developer to implement structured data on a page?

• When there are multiple schema markups that you want to implement on a single page
• When you are unable to use a plugin to add structured data to your website
• You should always work with a developer to implement structured data.
• When there are a large number of required or recommended properties in a markup

 

What tool can you use to test for errors in structured data markup?

• Google’s Structured Data Testing Tool
• Google’s Rich Results Test
• Google’s PageSpeed Insights
• Both A & B

 

Why is over-optimizing bad?

• You can’t collect any impactful data to inform your next steps
• Google will be confused and unable to crawl your site
• You won’t be able to update a page after a certain number of changes
• It will trigger a penalty in Google

 

Choose all that apply. What data can you gather about your website from Google Search Console?

• Search impressions
• Position in SERPs
• Time spent on a page
• Clickthrough rate

 

If you track nothing else for SEO, make sure you track ___.

• Organic traffic
• Clickthrough rate
• Conversion rate
• Impressions

 

True or False? No matter what SEO tool you use, the metrics will be exactly the same.

• True
• False

 

True or False? Domain authority is a ranking factor in Google’s algorithms.

• True
• False

 

Chris is a marketing manager at The Pet Box, which offers subscription boxes for pet owners. Chris wants to increase traffic to The Pet Box’s main product page. Right now that page ranks on the second page of search results for their target keyword. Chris has started improving the on-page SEO of the page, optimizing it for their target keyword, and seeking backlinks from popular pet care blogs. In order to track progress towards their goal, which metrics should Chris track?

• Organic traffic, position, impressions, backlinks
• Organic traffic, clickthrough rate, bounce rate, sales
• Organic traffic, bounce rate, time spent on page

 

Why would you want to run competitive analyses of keywords?

• To figure out what keywords your web pages are currently ranking for
• To determine whether you should be targeting a long tail keyword or a head term
• To ensure the keywords you’re targeting are aligned with your audience
• You shouldn’t run competitive analysis of keywords.

 

What is the recommended format for implementing schema markup?

• Google Tag Manager
• HTML
• JSON-LD
• None of the above

 

What kind of heading tag should you use for subtitles on a page?

• H1
• H2
• H3
• B or C

 

Which of these is a strategy to determine the internal linking structure of a website?

• Pyramids
• Schema
• Canonicalization
• Topic clusters

 

Choose all that apply. Which of these tactics will help improve your website’s internal linking?

• Add a related posts section to your blog.
• Audit your robots.txt file.
• Create more blog posts and web pages.
• Create a pillar page and topic cluster.

 

Which of these is an example of a top-level domain?

• www.
• .org
• https://
• All of the above

 

True or False? It is a best practice to make your URLs as long and descriptive as possible.

• True
• False

 

What technical SEO issue can you solve with an SSL certificate?

• Slow site speed
• Lack of site security
• Duplicate content
• Negative mobile user experience

 

Zoe is a digital marketer at a graphic design agency, and she’s been tasked this quarter with improving the firm’s SEO. However, the only guidance she has received from her boss is to get the site to rank higher on Google. In order for Zoe to create a successful SEO strategy for the business, what should her first step be?

• Perform an SEO audit of the firm’s website to determine if there are any crawl errors or content gaps
• Set a SMART goal and establish KPI’s to track if her SEO efforts are successful
• Outline a content calendar for the quarter, including target keywords with high search volume

 

True or False? When you make a change to a page, Google immediately crawls it.

• True
• False

 

True or False? Adding structured data to a page guarantees that it will appear as a rich snippet in search results.

• True
• False

 

True or False? Google accounts for the majority of searches worldwide.

 

What is a backlink profile?

 

What is the purpose of heading tags?

 

When would it be beneficial to have a different title tag than your heading tag?

 

Choose all that apply. Why are meta descriptions important?

 

How do search engines use sitemaps?

 

What kind of company would benefit from the site links rich snippet?

 

True or False? Structured data is a markup language.

• True
• False

 

When performing keyword research, how can you determine which keywords you should create content for?

How long should your page’s title tag be?

 

How do you build discovery and relevance for search engines?

 

Which of these is NOT part of a URL?

 

Why is having duplicate content an issue for SEO?

 

 

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400-101: Facebook Certified Media Planning Professional Exam Answers

This exam measures your competency in designing an end-to-end Facebook marketing strategy that aligns to business goals and complements a holistic marketing plan.

A company has developed a new e-cigarette device. The company is happy that many online discussion boards have been created for like-minded consumers to discuss e-cigarette interests and would like to promote the new product and generate sales online.

 

Blueprint Certification

 

 

 

Questions and Answers

 

Which type of tactic can the company execute through Facebook ads? 

• Promote awareness of the product and generate direct sales from Facebook ads using any type of creative
• Use product imagery for awareness, but can’t sell products through Facebook ads
• Connect consumers to blogs or groups for vaping-related interests that don’t lead to sale of product
• Sell products directly through Facebook ads using only product images

 

Ads must not promote the sale or use of tobacco products and related paraphernalia. Blogs or groups connecting people with tobacco-related interests, as long as the service does not lead to the sale of tobacco or tobacco-related products

A retail advertiser has both physical store locations and an online ecommerce website. It implemented the Facebook pixel on its website, as well as standard events.

The advertiser is launching a series of Facebook campaigns soon and wants to understand the consumer journey and conversions that have happened across channels. It also wants to report on which campaigns and what type of audiences are generating sales.

What additional data source should the advertiser use to determine campaign performance? 

• Facebook pixel
• Facebook SDK
• Offline Conversions
• Online Event Sets

 

Facebook offline conversions lets businesses leverage their offline events data—such as in-store purchases, over-the-phone bookings and qualified leads to help power their digital campaigns. Businesses can connect their CRM (customer relationship management) databases or POS (point of sale) systems to their Facebook account in order to track offline events that aren’t captured by the Facebook Pixel or SDK.

An e-commerce retailer needs to reach customers with an offer available to existing customers only. The e-commerce retailer has the Facebook pixel installed across its site and is building audiences throughout the purchase journey.

Which audience is the most appropriate? 

• Page followers
• Lookalike Audience
• Custom Audience
• Interest-based audience

 

With Custom Audiences, you can reach customers you already know with ads on Facebook. Just upload a list of contact info like email addresses or phone numbers. You can also use info from your website or app. We’ll deliver your ad to those people if they’re on Facebook.

A new online-only skincare company launched a series of Facebook campaigns to increase awareness of its newest line of products. It saw positive results from the awareness campaigns and now wants to encourage people to request free samples of its products. The third phase of the company’s marketing strategy is to create ads using the Catalog Sales objective and retarget people who have requested free samples.

What should the advertiser do prior to creating its retargeting campaign? 

• Upload events sets using the Offline Conversions API
• Place the ‘purchase’ standard event across all website pages
• Remove products from the existing feed so only new products are featured
• Implement the Facebook pixel and standard events across the website

 

You need a Facebook Pixel implemented on your website, and use standard events to report which product IDs from your catalog are being viewed, added to cart and purchased in order to retarget. If you want to retarget people in a mobile app, you can set up app events. If you’re not sure how to set up a pixel or app events, consider reaching out to a website developer.

 

An apparel company wants to launch a Facebook campaign using the Conversions objective. It will need to report on both purchase values and product type.

 

What should the advertiser do? 

• Implement the purchase standard event and add parameters for value and product type
• Implement the purchase standard event, and create two custom conversions for value and product type
• Create two custom conversions: one each for purchase value and product type
• Create three custom conversions: one each for purchase, value, and product type

 

An advertiser launched a campaign to increase traffic to its site with a secondary KPI of time on site, and notices a high bounce rate from people who came to the site from Facebook. The campaign is set up with a Traffic objective and optimized for impressions.

 

How should the next campaign be set up to increase site visits?

• A campaign using the Traffic objective, optimized for landing page views
• A campaign using the Engagement objective, optimized for impressions
• A campaign using the Traffic objective, optimized for link clicks
• A campaign using the Reach objective, optimized for reach

 

How should the media planner advise the brand to evaluate performance using Campaign Budget Optimization? 

• Set specific spend limits by ad set using lowest cost with a bid cap
• Using campaign budget optimization, delivery is optimized to drive efficient performance and CPAs at the campaign level to be evaluated holistically with an expected variance in ad set level performance
• Use campaign budget optimization with bid caps across ad sets to inform delivery as needed
• Set specific spend limits by ad set using target cost bidding strategies for some control

 

If your goal is to get more traffic on a specific page (or specific pages) of your website: We recommend landing page view optimization over link click optimization, since the former can improve traffic quality. We especially recommend it if you’re trying to get people to land on a page (or pages) on their mobile devices.

 

A UK retailer has a new watch for young women interested in sports and outdoor activities. This new watch can be linked to an app on the smartphone to record the owner’s fitness metrics. The retailer is using Audience Insights to help design a campaign on Facebook for this new product.

 

Which of the following categories in Audience Insights would help the retailer understand its audience better? 

• Location
• Device preferences
• Education
• Purchase behavior

 

Facebook uses native data to show you the following audience features: age and gender, relationship status, education level, job role, top categories, Page likes, top cities, top countries, top languages, frequency of activities and device users. The retailer already knows where the audience resides, but they could gain greater insight in understanding the device preference when planning the campaign.

 

A media planner needs to maximize predictable reach at a controlled frequency for an upcoming campaign. They need to optimize for ad recall.

 

Which buying option and objective should the media planner select to meet the requirements?

• Reach and frequency with the Brand Awareness objective
• Auction with the Brand Awareness objective
• Reach and frequency with the Reach objective
• Auction with the Video Views objective

 

A CPG food client is not achieving optimal frequency for its cereal product, and its purchase cycle is 10 weeks. It wants a more even frequency distribution, and to increase the likelihood that it will influence someone at the right moment during its purchase cycle.

 

Which buying method and strategy should the media planner recommend? 

• Auction with a 12-week campaign
• Reach and frequency with a 12-week campaign
• Reach and frequency with an 8-week campaign
• Auction with an 8-week campaign

 

Since the purchase cycle is 10 days we need to make sure our campaigns support the purchase cycles – also by moving to a reach and frequency campaign the system will make sure we reach as many people in our target audience

 

An advertiser has seen great success using Facebook and Instagram feed over the past six months, but is now noticing that the CPM increased and delivery declined. It uses a Custom Audience based on CRM data, as well as both videos and images.

 

What solution should the media planner recommend?

• Automatic placements and Lookalike Audiences
• Instagram and Facebook feed placements and interest-based audiences
• Automatic placements and a narrower Custom Audience
• In-stream video placement and Core Audiences

 

A brand manager needs its agency to recommend a Facebook strategy to generate awareness for a CPG product. The media plan must provide a list of all possible ad placements, platforms, websites and apps that an ad may be served on before any campaign is launched. The brand manager doesn’t want to limit reach but prefers transparency over cost efficiencies.

 

What placement selection should be used for this campaign? 

• Facebook and Instagram feed to ensure proper brand safety
• Automatic placements and provide client with publisher list for pre-approval
• Facebook feed only to ensure proper brand safety
• Instagram and Facebook feed, Instagram Stories and Instant Articles

 

Automatic placement will utilize all platforms in our Facebook family of apps – Providing a list of websites that will be used in our audience network will provide transparency if they have websites they want to blacklist they can

 

A media planner needs to determine the optimal strategy for an upcoming brand campaign for its financial services client. The client has the following:

• A 15-second video showcasing its new offering
• A goal to generate the most completed video views while maximizing its budget
• A restriction not to exceed its cost-per-completed view benchmark

 

Which optimization and bid strategy should the media planner select?

• ThruPlay with cost cap
• ThruPlay video views with bid cap
• ThruPlay video with target cost
• ThruPlay video views with target cost

 

A luxury jewelry brand is launching its first necklace collection and wants to use Instagram campaigns with the carousel ad format to increase conversions. The plan is to show a different necklace in each carousel card, linking to the website. It is important to the client that the CPA does not exceed $50. It is not certain how it should bid to achieve the desired result.

 

What bid strategy should the media planner recommend to the client?

• Lowest cost
• Target cost
• Bid cap
• Cost cap

 

The Cost cap bid strategy allows the advertiser to provide Facebook with the cost of the results they care about.

 

An online game retailer starts an ad campaign because sales have decreased in a specific region. The retailer has only one video to use in all of its media mix, and it wants to attract new customers and establish a stronger brand in the region.

 

Which campaign objective should the retailer use? 

• Reach
• Engagement
• Video Views
• Brand Awareness

 

The Brand awareness objective is used to help advertisers confidently predict the success of their brand campaign. This objective optimizes for Estimated Ad Recall, a predictable, real-time measure for how successfully a campaign drove consumers to recall seeing their ad.

 

A well-known local banking brand plans to use video assets to make existing and potential customers aware of the main features of its newly launched debit card. The brand is unable to accept applications online and wants to get information about potential customers to connect through direct mail.

 

Which campaign objective will achieve the brand’s goal? 

• Brand Awareness
• Lead Generation
• Video Views
• Local Awareness

 

The Lead Generation objective allows advertisers to find new customers who are likely interested in their products or services and collect specific information from the potential customers.  The advertiser can use this information to follow up and connect through direct mail.

 

A band releases a new album. After friends and family follow the band on Facebook, traffic to its website fails to increase. The band needs to increase the number of website album purchases and has implemented the Facebook pixel.

 

Which campaign objective should the band use? 

• Conversions
• Brand awareness
• Video views
• Traffic

 

An online home accessories brand wants to generate in-store sales at its first store in Paris. The company wants this campaign to focus on attracting new customers. The current media budget is very limited.

Additional information:

• Audience: Women, ages 21-40
• Budget: $25,000
• Assets: ThruPlay video
• Past customers: 25,000
• Placements: Facebook Feed and Instagram Feed

 

What audience strategy should the media planner recommend?

• “People who live in Paris, from a Lookalike Audience of loyal customers”
• “People who live in Paris, from a Custom Audience of loyal customers”
• Core Audience of people living in Paris
• Lookalike audience of all website visitors who live in Paris

 

A restaurant chain wants to drive new customers to its 25 locations around the country. It has a highly qualified list of 2,000 customers likely to enjoy the restaurants based on cuisine and budget.

 

How should the restaurant structure its strategy? 

• Use a Lookalike Audience with the Reach objective, and target the campaign to reach people in a radius around restaurant locations. Based on the results, consider using a Lookalike Audience.
• Use a Custom Audience with the Store Traffic objective, using offers and discounts
• Use the Reach objective around its store locations to reach the maximum number of people
• Use a Lookalike Audience within the Store Traffic Objective, and target the campaign to reach people in a radius around restaurant locations

 

If you want to increase awareness about your brand or reinforce a particular message about your business, the reach objective can help you increase the number of people who see your message.

 

A financial services advertiser in the United Kingdom has historically focused on increasing website visitors and encouraging people to bank online. The advertiser wants to transition its current customer base from using the website for online banking to using its new mobile app. The app launched two days ago but has experienced less than 100 app installs.

 

The advertiser has the following resources:

• Website with the Facebook pixel and standard events properly implemented
• Mobile app with the SDK and app events properly implemented
• A CRM database of current customers, segmented by those who do and do not currently use online banking

The media planner intends to create a campaign using the App Installs objective.

 

What is the appropriate audience to use for this campaign?

• A Custom Audience of people who have installed the app
• A Lookalike Audience of people who have visited the website in the past 30 days
• A Custom Audience of people who currently use online banking
• A Lookalike Audience of people who currently use online banking

 

Custom Audiences work best when specifically targeted to a particular group of your customers. Leverage what you already know about your customer and target messaging that can drive action. For example, are you looking to reconnect with your loyalty members or newsletter subscribers? Or perhaps you want to target customers who left items in their online shopping cart with a special discount? Tailor your messaging to your audience segments to personalize their experience and drive your desired business outcome.

 

An emerging beauty brand wants to start advertising with Facebook for the first time for its go-to market strategy.

The company only has the following creative resources available:

• 6-second videos (4:5 aspect ratio)
• Static images (4:5 aspect ratio)

 

What is the optimal mix of placements that the media planner should recommend? 

• Instagram Stories, Instagram Feed, Facebook Feed
• Instagram Feed, In-Stream and Instagram Stories
• Instagram Stories, Facebook Feed and Right Column
• In-Stream, Facebook Feed and Messenger

 

An agency recently A/B tested two creative assets for a beauty advertiser’s brand awareness campaign. A carousel of product images featuring a new line of lipsticks was tested against a 30-second video tutorial.

The results showed that the ad set featuring the carousel performed better and had the lower cost per result. In previous campaigns the video outperformed images. The planner needs to find out if videos perform better than static images for this client.

 

What creative strategy should be tested for the next campaign?

• The same carousel of images versus a shorter version of the original 30-second video
• A new carousel of images versus the original 30-second video tutorial
• The original 30-second video tutorial versus a 15-second version
• The same carousel of images versus a single image featuring a collage of products

 

An advertiser needs to reach 50% of its target customers a minimum of three times per week over four weeks.

• The advertiser’s target audience size is 2,000,000 people.
• The advertiser is using the reach and frequency buying type, and is able to control frequency accurately.
• The CPM projected in reach and frequency is $5.00.
• The advertiser is using Core Audiences for this campaign.

 

What is the minimum budget required for the advertiser to meet its goal? 

• $15,000
• $30,000
• $60,000
• $120,000

 

The CPM is $5.00; reaching 50% of the target audience is 1,000,000 3 times a week for 4 weeks is 12,000,000 impressions. Formula to calculate media spend in this scenario is: CPM*Impressions/1000 = Cost

 

A direct response company wants as many acquisitions as possible over a four-week period. The company estimates that it should be able to generate at least 10,000 conversions through its site, which has the Facebook pixel tracking to conversions. The client is willing to accept a return on investment of 2:1.

Additional information:

• Overall, each new customer is worth $30 in purchases.
• Current auction prices put the CPM at $5.00 and the CPC at $0.30.
• Facebook and Instagram have historically generated a 2% conversion rate on website visitors.

 

How much budget should the client allocate to the campaign to meet its conversion goals and minimum return on investment requirements? 

• $15,000
• $30,000
• $150,000
• $300,000

 

($5.00 CPM *$30 Purchases)*1000

 

A small non-profit organization in the US wants to generate awareness with Facebook ads using the reach and frequency buying type.

Additional information:

• The organization wants to maximize its reach over a 3-week campaign, but this requires a budget of almost $2,500,000.
• The organization’s maximum budget is $1,000,000.
• The organization keeps the two impressions per 7-day parameter.

 

What are the effects of decreasing the budget to $1,000,000? (Choose 2) 

Select All Correct Responses

• Overall reach will decrease
• Average frequency will increase
• Potential audience size will decrease
• CPM will decrease

 

Overall reach will decrease because spend is not high enough to reach entire desired audience. Maximum reach over a 3-week campaign requires a budget of almost $2,500,000 not $1,000,000. The CPM will decrease because you are no longer paying a premium to operate through the reach and frequency tool.

 

A client is launching a new app and has a budget of $1,000,000 to promote the app using Facebook ads.

Additional information:

• Most effective frequency: 2 impressions per person
• Average CPM to reach the most valuable audience: $20.00
• Average percentage of people who install the app when they see 2 impressions: 5%

The media planner needs to follow best practices and use historical data to inform the strategy.

 

How many app installs could be achieved when the campaign is optimized? 

• 2,500,000
• 1,250,000
• 500,000
• 1,000,000

 

$1,000,000 / $40 ($20 per CPM * 2 impressions per person) = 25,000

 

25,000* 1,000 = 25,000,000 (total number of impressions)

 

25,000,000*.05 = 1,250,000 (total number of app installs achieved)

 

A small, family-owned book retailer has traditionally sold books in-store. The retailer has found an even greater return on investment from sales online.

 

Which methods should the advertiser use to measure the effectiveness of its Facebook campaigns? (Choose 2) 

Select All Correct Responses

• An offline Conversion Lift test to determine the effect of Facebook ads on in-store sales
• A Nielsen Brand Effect test to determine how many people remember seeing its ads
• A Facebook split test to determine what types of creatives sell more books
• An online Conversion Lift test to determine the impact of its Facebook campaigns on online sales

 

Conversion Lift measures people, not cookies, which helps you understand ad performance across multiple devices and conversion events, regardless of if they happen online, offline or in-app.

 

An established CPG brand launches its first Facebook campaign. The campaign will be set up to:

• Reach 70% of its desired audience of people ages 25-44.
• Deliver at a frequency of twice per week.
• Feature a variety of 6-second videos.
• Measure the shift in purchase intent of its product.

 

What should a planning professional recommend? 

• Facebook Brand Lift test
• Facebook Analytics
• Facebook ads reporting
• Facebook Conversion Lift test

 

A company experiences a decline in purchases among its younger audience. This audience is the company’s most profitable, due to frequency of consumption. Focus groups have provided feedback that the company’s brand is perceived as “too old” and “boring”. The company decides to schedule a rebranding campaign, but does NOT understand how this audience consumes media.

• Desired audience: Ages 13-25
• Purchases within desired audience: Down 20% YOY
• Brand purchase intent: 15% of desired audience
• Channels used previously: TV, press, radio, display

 

What two steps should the company take to help develop its campaign? (Choose 2)

Select All Correct Responses

• Analyze the information about its desired audience using Audience Insights
• Create relevant posts and boost them to get more fans on its Page
• Use Ads Manager to understand which channels are most effective at achieving its goal
• Choose the Traffic objective to encourage customers to make a purchase on the website

 

Facebook Audience Insights tool provides aggregate information about people connected to your page and people on Facebook, so that you can create content that resonates easily and find out more people in your current audience. Ads Manager is an all-in-one tool that can help brands track how their campaigns are performing across channels and optimize towards the best solutions. In this case, the company can use Audience Insights to better understand their desired audience and Ads Manager to optimize their media towards the best placements.

 

A fast food company uses a TV commercial asset for a video campaign to communicate its new product. The video average watch time is lower than its average video campaign. When segmenting the reports by placement, the video average watch time is 3 seconds for Instagram Stories and 12 seconds for Facebook News Feed.

 

What should the company do to increase the video average watch time without decreasing the potential reach? 

• Remove Instagram Stories from placements
• Use an adaptation of the TV commercial for vertical screens
• Use a 10 second version of the TV commercial on Facebook campaigns
• Pause the video campaign and create an engagement campaign with image ads

 

Removing a placement will impact potential reach, paring down the video on Facebook from 12 seconds to 8 seconds could impact the message. The best answer is using the adaptation of the commercial that is made vertical to fit how people are watching video on Facebook and Instagram.

 

Facebook Blueprint Test taker tips

 

Testing Experience

 

More info about this certification: facebook.com/business/learn/certification/exams/400-101-exam?ref=ens_rdr

 

Facebook Blueprint Certifications:

• 100-101 Facebook Certified Digital Marketing Associate
• 200-101 Facebook Certified Marketing Science Professional
• 300-101: Facebook Certified Creative Strategy Professional
• 400-101: Facebook Certified Media Planning Professional
• 410-101: Facebook Certified Media Buying Professional

 

 

 

410-101 Facebook Certified Media Buying Professional Exam Answers

This exam identifies candidates who possess advanced competency in the skills, tools, advertising policies, and best practices required to buy ads on Facebook, Instagram and Messenger.

 

Blueprint Certification

 

 

Questions and Answers

 

A jewelry advertiser wants to increase awareness of its brand among women 25-45 years old in Scotland.

Since the brand has no brand awareness in this country, it would like its ads to reach at least 45% of its target audience.

How should the media buyer set up the campaign? 

• Create an auction campaign with the Brand Awareness objective
• Create an auction campaign with the Reach objective
• Create a reach and frequency campaign with the Brand Awareness objective
• Create a reach and frequency campaign with the Reach objective

 

An advertiser is experiencing under delivery on one of its campaigns. The advertiser receives many negative reactions and comments on the ad and enlists the help of a community manager to address these comments.

What is most likely causing under delivery?

• The audience needs to be narrowed to reach a more applicable set of people
• The bid cap is too low for the holiday season
• The advertiser needs to set up a reach and frequency campaign
• The user value is affecting the performance in the auction

 

A company is launching a new product, its first product in this vertical.

• Assets: video, product detail images

• Audience: Women ages 25-55

Which objective and optimization for ad delivery should be used to achieve maximum awareness? 

• Brand Awareness objective, optimized for ad recall lift
• Engagement (post engagement) objective, optimized for post engagement
• Traffic objective, optimized for link clicks
• Video Views objective, optimized for video views

 

A company wants to encourage customers who are considering a product to make a purchase.

Which three solutions should be used to accomplish this goal? (Choose 3) 

Select All Correct Responses

• Website Custom Audiences created with Facebook pixel
• Conversions objective
• Page Post Engagement objective
• Lead generation ads

• Dynamic ads with Carousel Ads

 

An online home improvement company wants to reach its core customer base with an offer for a product at a low price. The brand wants to track how many people have claimed the offer to understand if the message is relevant to the audience.

 

Which campaign objective should be used to achieve this goal? 

• Engagement
• Conversions
• Brand Awareness
• Reach

 

A new Facebook advertiser has an agency managing its website and advertising. The advertiser is trying to streamline reporting. In order to do so, the agency needs to clean up the number of custom events on the advertiser’s website.

 

What information does the advertiser need to provide the agency first?

• Ad account ID
• Active standard events
• Active custom events
• Pixel ID

 

A small technology company installs a Facebook pixel on its website’s checkout page. Facebook reports 20 completed purchases during the past seven days, and the business website reports 50 completed purchases.

 

What should the media buyer do to confirm that the pixel is installed properly? 

• Install and run the Facebook Pixel Helper
• Verify reporting and pixel functionality via a third party
• Extend the attribution window to 28 days
• Install an extra piece of test code

 

A media agency receives the following client brief:

• Objective: Awareness of a new shampoo line
• Audience: Men ages 25-54, previous purchasers of shampoo
• Reach goal: 50%
• Additional information: Brand has purchase information from its previous line of shampoo

 

Which three options can help the advertiser meet its goal? (Choose 3) 

Select All Correct Responses

• Gender
• Custom Audience
• Lookalike Audience

• Age
• Interests

 

A client is launching a video campaign for an upcoming holiday sale with a goal of conversions. The campaign reaches four different groups of people in four ad sets. These ad sets consistently under-deliver on their daily budgets. Ads Manager has issued a warning regarding audience overlap.

The ad sets are as follows:

• Past online purchasers (last 120 days)
• Website visitors
• Cart abandoners (last 60 days)

 

What should the buyer change to reduce overlap? 

• Place all audiences into one ad set
• Create custom events on the Facebook pixel
• Exclude past purchasers from campaign audiences
• Switch the video creative

 

A pool accessory advertiser wants to generate online sales to new customers of its top-selling products. On average, 80% of people who visit the website buy an item. The company features the entire catalog on the website with category-level product sets and has confirmed that the Facebook pixel is working. The company launches a campaign with the following parameters:

• Objective: Conversions
• Optimization: Conversions
• Duration: June 1 to June 30
• Audience: 5 mile radius of 20 store locations
• Budget: $5,000,000
• Bid cap: $300
• Creative: Single images of each product

One week after the campaign launched, the company has only spent 5% of budget. Ads Manager is warning that the audience size is too small.

 

Which is the appropriate adjustment the advertiser should make?

• Change the radius around store locations to 1 mile
• Change to Catalog Sales objective with a broad audience
• Change optimization from conversions to value
• Change the bid cap to $150

 

A skin care company that sells a variety of products (primarily online) has recently launched a new subscription-model skin-care package and would like to encourage people who have bought products from them before to subscribe. Each subscription has a 90-day supply and a 6-month minimum contract. The company’s website has the Facebook pixel installed with the following standard events: Home Page, Product Page(s), Add to Cart, Purchase.

 

What audience would be most appropriate to help them generate subscription sales? 

• Men and Women 25-43
• Custom Audience of previous purchasers
• Lookalike Audience, based on previous purchasers
• Women 30-55

 

Refer to the chart.

Ad Name	Reach	Cost per result	Amount spent	Avg. % of video viewed	Estimated Ad Recall Lift (People)	Purchase (Facebook Pixel)	CPC (All)	Post engagement
Ad 1	607,887	$ 0.00	$ 863.42	57.71	63,400	3	$ 0.03	264,344

 

An advertiser is launching a campaign to educate people on its new products. The products are complex and require more detailed explanation than possible in the ads. So the advertiser needs to direct people to a microsite to learn more about the products. The advertiser’s goal is to direct as many people as possible to this information within its limited budget.

 

Which metric should the advertiser optimize? 

• CPC (cost per click)
• Post engagement
• Estimated ad recall
• Purchase

 

A retail client is trying to upsell past purchasers of rain coats to buy rain boots. The client has the Facebook pixel installed on the site and a product catalog set up with product sets by category. The client wants to maximize purchases onsite during spring. From previous campaigns, the advertiser has learned:

• Previously viewed items tend to have a 2x conversion rate
• Sale of rain coats increases 4.5x during inclement weather
• The most successful targeting tactic is retargeting based on browsing behavior

 

Which type of creative should the client use for this campaign? 

• Additional images of rain coats
• Images from a relevant product set
• Images of any previously viewed product
• Images identified by the algorithm for broad audiences

 

A number of companies wish to create Facebook advertising campaigns to reach people over the legal age in Canada.

 

Which of the following would violate Facebook ad policies? 

• A craft brewing company with high alcohol content beer
• A home delivery app for cannabis products
• A dating service company that has received prior permission from Facebook
• An influencer that has a branded content partnership with a credit card company

 

A client appoints a new agency and wants to share its existing Facebook pixel.

 

Which tool should the client use? 

• Business Manager
• Ads Manager
• Audience Insights
• Pixel Helper

 

A retail brand launches a new e-commerce website and wants to begin advertising its product on Facebook and Instagram. The brand uses Business Manager and has connected a Facebook Page to it.

After launching its campaign with placement optimization, the brand notices that users cannot click through to its Instagram account from its Instagram ad.

 

What are two possible causes of this issue? (Choose 2)

Select All Correct Responses

• The Instagram business profile and Facebook Page are not connected
• The Instagram account is not linked to the Business Manager
• The Instagram account has fewer than 200,000 followers

• The Instagram business profile was not selected at the ad level

 

A large retailer has set up a campaign using the Reach objective with the following characteristics:

• Duration: The campaign launched two weeks ago and is ending in one week
• Placements: Facebook News Feed and Audience Network

The retailer notices that mobile is performing better than desktop but the overall frequency is too high, and the campaign is delivering at a lower rate than expected.

 

What should the retailer do to increase reach and lower costs? 

• Remove Facebook News Feed and add Instagram Stories
• Use all available placements
• Switch to the Brand Awareness objective
• Remove desktop placements

 

A media buyer is responding to a request for proposal from a popular magazine website with the following details:

• Goal: Increase monthly visitors to the website
• Audience: Males 18-45
• Creative assets: Video and images carousel available
• Additional information: Custom Audience available

 

Which optimization should be used to achieve the business goal? 

• Impressions
• Link clicks
• Daily unique reach
• Landing page views

 

A beverage brand needs to generate awareness for one of its popular beverages. The brand measures success by ad recall at each stage of the campaign and must be able to increase spend if positive results occur.

• Audience: Males 18-35, living in cities
• Budget: $1,000,000 USD
• Format available: Video

 

Which objective should be recommended? 

• Engagement
• Video Views
• Brand Awareness
• Store Traffic Objective

 

A large retail advertiser with more than 5,000 products wants to upsell to consumers who have purchased products on its website. The retailer needs to reach customers who viewed products on the website and did NOT purchase any product. The retailer wants to dynamically retarget this audience.

 

Which objective should be selected when setting up this campaign? 

• Conversions
• Traffic
• Lead Generation
• Catalog Sales

 

A new frozen yogurt store opens in a small town’s retail center. The store needs to understand how its Facebook ads impact frozen yogurt sales.

 

What should the shop use to measure these in-store purchases? 

• Facebook pixel
• Store Traffic objective
• Offline Conversions
• Catalog

 

A client has launched a week-long campaign using the reach and frequency buying type and needs to deliver the ads in a sequence. There are three ads for the sequence, and the reach has been set to 60% with a frequency cap of two per seven days. The client is unable to get all three ads on the sequencing.

 

What is causing the client’s problem? 

• The reach is insufficient
• The buying method is incorrect
• The ad has not been uploaded properly
• The frequency cap is insufficient

 

An online clothing store launched a campaign using the Conversions objective 2 weeks ago and is seeing mixed results. The store is optimizing for Purchases. The goal is to maximize ROAS (return on ad spend) while keeping the CPA below $110. Budget is unlimited as long as the buy yields at least 1.5x ROAS. So far, the advertiser has been testing different cost controls at equal budgets. The results are listed below.

Ad Set	Media Spend	Bid Strategy	CPA	ROAS
1	$12,000	Lowest Cost	$65	1.45x
2	$8,500	$110 Bid Cap	$85	1.6x
3	$6,000	Lowest Cost	$60	1.3x
4	$2,500	$110 Target Cost	$115	2x

 

Which change should the advertiser make to achieve its goal? 

• Decrease budget against ad set 1
• Increase bid and budget against ad set 2
• Increase budget against ad set 3
• Increase target cost against ad set 4

 

A retailer launches a campaign to generate sales of a new furniture line.

Campaign details are as follows:

• Budget: $100,000 lifetime budget
• Flight: 10 weeks
• Audience: US, English language, Women ages 25-34; Website Custom Audiences: purchasers, abandon carts and product page visits from the past 90 days
• Objective: Conversions
• Optimization for ad delivery: Conversions
• KPI: Cost per conversion
• Conversion window: 1-day click or view

The campaign launched yesterday and has served a few impressions but has minimal spend.

 

Which action should the retailer take for the campaign to start spending? 

• Optimize for impressions
• Optimize for landing page views
• Change to Reach objective
• Decrease the budget

 

A gaming client wants to maximize its return on ad spend for a given campaign.

• Ad set 1
  • Spend: $5,000
  • Conversion value: $1,000
• Ad set 2
  • Spend: $50,000
  • Conversion value: $100,000
• Ad set 3
  • Spend: $20,000
  • Conversion value: $60,000

What change should be made to achieve its goals?

• Lower the bid on ad set 3
• Shift budget into ad set 1
• Raise the bid for ad set 2
• Shift budget into ad set 3

 

A client launched a campaign using the Conversions objective. The goal was to increase product purchases across a period of 30 days. The setup was as follows:

• Bid cap: $28
• Daily budget: $200
• Optimization: Purchase event

The campaign has been underdelivering for six days with 10 purchases, with a cost per purchase of $25.

 

Which two adjustments should be made to improve purchase performance? (Choose 2) 

Select All Correct Responses

• Switch to accelerated delivery
• Decrease the budget to control return on ad spend
• Change the optimization event
• Use cost cap

 

A client is launching a campaign on Facebook. It wants to understand how many people clicked through to go to its website.

Which of the following metrics would give the client the most specific data point?

• Clicks (All)
• Unique clicks
• Outbound clicks
• Link clicks

 

An app developer has a mobile game that monetizes through in-app purchases. A large number of players are making payments, but the players quit engaging with the game after a few days. The developer decides it needs to mitigate both CPI and ROAS when buying media to account for the expected low LTV. This means that the developer buys for 20% ROAS by Day 7 and wants to maintain an average $5 CPI across all campaigns.

 

As a test, the developer wants to see if the LTV can be improved by buying slightly more expensive installs. The developer runs a Multi-cell lift test holding audiences, creatives and budgets constant across the two. In cell 1, the developer buys against the 20% Day 7 ROAS goal and $5 CPI, and in cell 2, buys only for the 20% goal ignoring CPI. The results are below:

Test cell	$ Spend	CPI	CPA(cost per engagement)	D7 ROAS	Additional CPA	Additional ROAS	% Lift in purchases
Cell 1 (ROAS and CPI)	$10,000	$4.83	$79.36	22.5%	$5.50	0.22x	102%
Cell 2 (ROAS only)	$20,000	$5.31	$67.30	21.1%	$5.15	0.28x	194%

 

What should the developer do to maximize ROAS?

• Optimize both for CPI and ROAS
• Decrease CPI threshold and continue optimizing for both
• Increase CPI threshold and continue optimizing for both
• Optimize only for ROAS

 

A retail advertiser launched a campaign in January with the following setup:

• Campaign objective: Catalog Sales
• Optimization event: Purchase
• Buying type: Auction
• Bid cap: $20
• Products in catalog: 70

The advertiser notices that the campaign did not spend the whole budget in March. However, the ROAS is still above the goal.

Refer to the following report:

Month	Website conversions	Ad set lifetime budget	Amount spent	CPA	ROAS
January	1,340	$20,000	$20,000	$14.9	4.9x
February	1,134	$20,000	$20,000	$17.6	4.1x
March	1,030	$24,000	$20,577	$19.9	3.6x

 

What should the advertiser do to avoid underspending in April? 

• Remove products from the catalog
• Choose a different optimization event
• Switch to a daily budget
• Increase the bid cap

 

A store has budgeted $4,500 for its monthly promotion and has a daily budget of $150. The store spends its daily budget in full on weekends. The promotion overall is currently $200 under budget due to underspend on weekdays.

 

What should the media buyer do for next month’s campaign to make sure the promotion spends its full budget evenly throughout the flight? 

• Increase daily budgets on weekends
• Schedule ads to only run during store business hours
• Change from daily to lifetime budget
• Decrease campaign bids on the weekend

 

Facebook Blueprint Test taker tips

 

Testing Experience

 

More info about this certification: facebook.com/business/learn/certification/exams/410-101-exam?ref=ens_rdr

 

Facebook Blueprint Certifications:

• 100-101 Facebook Certified Digital Marketing Associate
• 200-101 Facebook Certified Marketing Science Professional
• 300-101: Facebook Certified Creative Strategy Professional
• 400-101: Facebook Certified Media Planning Professional
• 410-101: Facebook Certified Media Buying Professional

 

 

 

HubSpot Reporting Certification Exam Answers

Exam

• There are 60 questions.
• It should take 1 hour to complete.
• You must answer 45 questions correctly to pass.
• You must wait 12 hours between attempts.
• You have 3 hours to finish the exam.

 

Get certified in HubSpot Reporting Now!

 

The Golden Circle is a framework invented by Simon Sinek that helps organizations:

set and track ambitious business goals.

visualize their long-term, mid-term, and short-term goals.

explore their brand identity beyond just the products they offer.

prioritize their different business goals.

 

Fill in the blank: SWOT analysis is ________

a program and strategy you implement to speed up your flywheel.

the result of a company’s efforts to gather and analyze information about its industry, business environment, competitors, and competitive products and services.

a technique used entirely for visualization purposes, to envision the impact of forces and friction on a flywheel.

used to identify an organization’s strengths and weaknesses, opportunities and threats.

 

SMART goals are:

Source, Measurable, Attractive, Relevant, and Timely

Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Relevant, and Timely

Sustainable, Measurable, Attainable, Relevant, and Timely

Source, Medium, Attainable, Relevant, and Timely

 

Fill in the blank: When making data-driven decisions, objectives are statements ________.

that define the qualitative outcome of your goal.

that define the quantitative outcome of your goal.

you use to benchmark and monitor the progress toward your key result.

you use to benchmark the performance of every individual contributor.

 

Fill in the blank: Data literacy is the ability to __________.

design accessible charts and graphs to communicate trends, outliers, and patterns.

read, write, and communicate data in context.

eliminate silos from your organization.

read data in context.

 

Fill in the blank: Integrations are ___________.

the way your data is structured by the software you use.​

a series of rules that allow for an application to extract and use information from a piece of software in their own application.

used to connect your software to third-party applications so they can share information.

the more bite-sized data tables your CRM breaks your data into to streamline storage, management, and reporting.

 

What are APIs?

APIs are a group of technology-based tools that help businesses to operate effectively, market efficiently, and enable sales and service teams to provide an optimal customer experience.

APIs are an all-in-one event software that enables the delivery of unique attendee experiences through intelligent, personalized, and intent-based engagement.

APIs are a series of rules that allow for an application to extract and use information from a piece of software in their own application.

APIs are a full platform of marketing, sales, customer service, and CRM software — plus the methodology, resources, and support — to help businesses grow better.

 

Fill in the blank: An iPaaS solution is a __________.

series of rules that allow for an application to extract and use information from a piece of software in their own application.

graphic that shows just how many companies are vying for your attention.

cloud-based platform that connects various applications, systems, and technologies within the cloud or on-premise.

group of technology-based tools that help businesses to operate effectively, market efficiently, and enable sales and service teams to provide an optimal customer experience.

 

What is a tech stack?

A cloud-based platform that connects various applications, systems, and technologies within the cloud or on-premise.

A series of rules that allow for an application to extract and use information from a piece of software in their own application.

A group of technology-based tools that help businesses to operate effectively, market efficiently, and enable sales and service teams to provide an optimal customer experience.

A technology for managing all your company’s relationships and interactions with customers and potential customers.

 

What is the HubSpot App Marketplace?

An app ecosystem that connects you with over 300 integrations and a host of certified app partners to maximize the impact of your tech stack.

An app ecosystem that connects your to thousands of agencies, service providers, tech consultants, and expert professionals who have the credentials and experience to bring your vision to life.

An app ecosystem is a group of technology-based tools that help businesses to operate effectively, market efficiently, and enable sales and service teams to provide an optimal customer experience.

An online shop where you can buy CDs that enable you to download HubSpot directly to your device.

 

What are the benefits of running regular tech stack audits? Select all that apply.

Save employees time

Save money on apps

Maintain a single source-of-truth for data

Consolidate apps

 

Fill in the blank: Objects are _____________.

metrics that track anytime someone has an interaction to with your website or assets, such as page views, form submissions, or email clicks.

the bite-sized data tables databases split data into to streamline storage, management, and reporting.

a material thing that can be seen and touched.

a series of rules that allow for an application to extract and use information from a piece of software in their own application.

 

Fill in the blank: Events ___________.

track anytime someone has an interaction to with your website or assets.

are the bite-sized data tables databases split data into to streamline storage, management, and reporting.

are tags you can add to the end of the URLs of your marketing or promotional efforts.

track an output of something that has already happened.

 

Which HubSpot reporting tools would help you best analyze the performance of your HubSpot pages and blog posts over time?

HubSpot Report Builder

HubSpot Website Analytics

HubSpot Traffic Analytics

HubSpot Campaign Analytics

 

What is reporting?

The process of detecting and correcting inaccurate records from a table or database.

The process of compiling and organizing your data into accessible charts and graphs to communicate trends, outliers, and patterns.

The written or spoken summary of the strategic, operating, or financial data of your business.

The process that helps you review and invest in your customer experience in this age of the empowered buyer.

 

What is data visualization?

The written or spoken summary of the strategic, operating, or financial data of your business.

The process of compiling and organizing your data into accessible charts and graphs to communicate trends, outliers, and patterns.

The process of detecting and correcting inaccurate records from a table or database.

The process that helps you review and invest in your customer experience in this age of the empowered buyer.

 

True or false? When presenting your data on a bar chart, it’s effective to alter your axes so your audience only needs to see the necessary information.

True

False

 

What are the disadvantages to using pie charts? Select all that apply.

Pie charts do not showcase changes over time well.

Pie charts are not available in the HubSpot Report Builder.

Pie charts do not give you enough white space to accurately represent your data with notes.

Pie charts make it difficult to analyze data sets of equal or similar value.

 

Fill in the blank: The purpose of the HubSpot analytics tools is to: ___________.

dig into trends and determine which initiatives are creating the highest return on investment.

help you decide what metrics should appear on your dashboard by offering several standard reports to answer industry-specific questions.

measure the effectiveness of your marketing campaigns by providing HubSpot information about visitors accessing your site through the URL.

analyze your object data, including contacts, companies, deals, tickets, activities, products, or feedback submissions.

 

Fill in the blank: The silo mentality is ___________.

when the management of a customer or account moves from one team or department to another.

a process where an organization listens to complaints or grievances to improve its products or customer service.

a process where a company listens to employees’ complaints or grievances, instead of their customers and uses that feedback to improve its products or customer service.

a mindset present when certain departments or sectors do not wish to share information with others in the same company.

 

How can managers prevent silos from occurring at an organization?

Managers cannot prevent silos from occurring at an organization. They are inevitable.

By creating their own set of goals, independent of other departments, for their team to align behind.

By creating a culture transparency and collaboration by aligning their teams under shared vision and set of goals.

By only communicating with their team when it’s necessary to prevent information overload.

 

What negative impact(s) can silos have on your organization? How can silos negatively impact your organization? Select all that apply.

Reduce overall operational efficiency

Lower team morale

Contribute to the demise of a productive company culture

Add force to your flywheel

 

True or false? HubSpot invented the flywheel.

True

False

 

Fill in the blank: If you create a psychologically-safe working environment at your organization, team members are more likely to __________.

speak less openly and argue against the ideas of other teams and departments.

speak openly and contribute their ideas freely.

take less risks around each other, leading to a culture that provides more consistent results.

take needless risks, leading to bigger wins but also greater losses.

 

What is another name for negative feedback loops?

Positive Feedback Loops

Friction

Voice of the Customer Optimization

Force

 

What does your business do in the attract stage of the inbound methodology?

You build lasting relationships with people by providing insights and solutions that align with their pain points and goals.

You use your expertise to create content and conversations that start meaningful relationships with the right people.

You manage the handoff of a customer or account from sales to service.

You provide an outstanding experience that adds real value, and empowers people to reach their goals and become promoters of your company.

 

Fill in the blank: Growth hacking is the process of __________.

experimenting to explore observations and answer questions.

identifying the best strategies to cut superficial costs and make your position within your organization appear to be crucial.

running experiments aimed at building and maintaining a company’s customer base.

grooming your at-home garden and trimming back any unnecessary stalks or growth.

 

A/B testing is available in which HubSpot tools? Select all that apply.

CTAs

Sequences

Workflows

Email

 

Which of the following is NOT a step when running a marketing experiment?

Revise your test

Determine your objective

Create a prediction

Interpret your results

 

True or false? You can test both large and small elements in your marketing with A/B testing.

True

False

 

What type of data do analytics platforms like HubSpot log where visitors are coming from?

Source data

Engagement data

Website data

Conversion data

 

What data do entrances show?

Every time the HubSpot tracking code is loaded on your website.

The number of sessions ended on a particular page.

The number of sessions on your site that were initiated on a particular page.

You where your visitors are coming from before visiting your site.

 

Fill in the blank: Exit rate shows the percentage of sessions _________.

that started on a particular page.

started and ended after 30 minutes of inactivity.

who land on a particular page on your website and then leave.

that ended on a particular page.

 

If a contact has the original source of referrals in HubSpot, that means the contact first accessed your site from:

A link on a different website

Your pay-per-click ads

Directly typing your URL into their browser

A search engine like Google or Bing

 

If a contact has the original source of “offline sources” in HubSpot, that means the contact was first added to your database through:

Your tracking URLs

An import, an API, or manually

Your pay-per-click ads

A link on another website

 

What is sales enablement?

The methodology that prioritizes the needs, challenges, goals, and interests of individual buyers.

The process of selling web-based software to clients.

The approach your business takes to provide sales with the resources they need to effectively sell.

The process of designing and conducting experiments to optimize and improve the results of a target area.

 

Which of the following topics are beneficial to review at a smarketing meeting? Select all that apply.

Strategy or trend spotlights

Team champions

Performance of sales enablement efforts

Review of SLAs

 

Fill in the blank: The purpose of smarketing meeting is to ___________.

Bring your sales and marketing teams together to collaborate on a shared project and solve problems.

Compare marketingsperformance against that of sales to determine who gets the larger cut of the next quarterly budget.

Create an open forum where both marketers and sales reps make suggestions to the teams in product to determine which products get built for customers next.

Use post-its to map out your entire customer journey and flywheel.

 

When would you use a contact create attribution report?

To understand which marketing and sales activities are generating revenue for your business.

To analyze your object data, including contacts, companies, deals, tickets, activities, products, or feedback submissions.

To analyze the conversion rates between lifecycles or deal stages.

To analyze the interactions that led to conversions on your website.

 

What is the purpose of a multi-touch revenue attribution report in HubSpot?

To analyze the conversion rates between lifecycles or deal stages.

To understand which marketing and sales activities are generating revenue for your business.

To analyze the interactions that led to conversions on your website.

To analyze your object data, including contacts, companies, deals, tickets, activities, products, or feedback submissions.

 

Which of the following is an example of a lagging indicator?

Meetings scheduled

Deals won/lost

Demos or sales presentations

Referral requests

 

Which of the following is an example of a leading indicator?

Churn rate

Calls made

Average days to close

Number of new customers

 

If 90–100% of your salespeople are hitting quota, you should look into your metrics. Which of the following may be a reason for such high quota results?

Your business is growing.

Your sales quotas may be too high.

You have too many sales reps on your sales team.

Your sales quotas may be too low.

 

Fill in the blanks: You can analyze the performance of ____, ____, and ____ in the Sales Content Analytics.

documents, tasks, sequences

sequences, playbooks, tasks

sequences, templates, playbooks

documents, templates, sequences

 

True or false? The create date property on your deal records in HubSpot is auto-populated for you.

True

False

 

Customer satisfaction surveys in HubSpot track which customer sentiment metric?

Customer Satisfaction Score (CSAT)

Customer Effort Score (CES)

Net Promoter Score (NPS)

Customer Lifetime Value (CLV)

 

Which customer sentiment metric is the strongest predictor of future purchase behavior?

Customer Satisfaction Score (CSAT)

Customer Effort Score (CES)

Net Promoter Score (NPS)

Customer Lifetime Value (CLV)

 

How do you calculate customer lifetime value?

You’ll need to audit the expenses of all of your customer success efforts. Once you add all expenses into one sum, you can divide that value by your total number of customers to get your average customer lifetime value.

Multiply your average purchase value by your average purchase frequency rate. Then take that value and multiply it by your average customer lifetime value.

Divide the number of customers who renewed their subscription by the number of users who are up for renewal. Then, multiply your result by 100 to determine your customer lifetime value

Multiply your total number of active customers by your average revenue per user.

 

Which of the following are inputs you could use for your customer health score? Select all that apply.

Customer success rate

Recent survey results

Product usage data

Support case incident rate

 

If you still don’t know the type of information your team or stakeholders value, what should you do?

Ask them to provide feedback

Rely on what they’ve asked for in the past

Revise your reporting personas

Check their calendars to determine who they’ve been meeting with and what they might care about

 

How is dashboard building like gold panning?

Trick question. Dashboard building is not like gold panning.

Gold panning requires a geologist or prospector with a certain skill set, and dashboards should only be designed by data analysts with formal training.

Building a dashboard means giving your audience a block of information. They’ll need to do the work to extract the useful pieces from it.

You don’t want to give your audience a dense block of information. Instead, you need to massage your data to ensure your extracting the real gold — actionable insight!

 

When would you build a dashboard with the F-shaped reading pattern in mind?

If you are planning to build a dashboard that contains a lot of reports.

If you are planning to build a dashboard that contains only a few reports.

You should always build dashboards with the F-shaped reading pattern in mind.

You should never build dashboards with the F-shaped reading pattern in mind.

 

True or false? When designing dashboards, you should design them using a visual hierarchy.

True

False

 

What are blink tests used for?

To measure what information a visitor takes away from a page having looked at it for just 5–7 seconds

To arrange and organize elements on your dashboard so that visitors naturally gravitate toward the most important elements first

In the realm of psychology, they’re used to test how much working memory capacity you’re using when viewing a web page.

To measure what information a visitor takes away from a page having looked at it for just 3–5 seconds

 

Good stories share which five characteristics?

Entertaining, educational, encouraging, exceptional, endearing

Organized, memorable, universal, helpful, sincere

Entertaining, organized, educational, memorable, universal

Universal, educational, revolutionary, helpful, resourceful

 

What role does the hero play in your storytelling with data?

They make your data story relatable to your audience.

They elicit emotions and connect with the audience through relatable experiences.

They leave your audience with a call-to-action.

They help you prove to your audience why your company is better than your competitors.

 

Proving a case with data consists of which of the following parts? Select all that apply.

Making a claim

Creating a prediction

Presenting qualitative or quantitative evidence

Including supplemental business context

 

Which of the following are elements you can add to your presentation to make your data story more relatable? Select all that apply.

The careful placement of a sidekick (who represents you) to add humor and much needed sage advice to the “hero” of the story.

A villain that your audience members are inclined to dislike. Base this off a real-life competitor to make the villain feel more tangible.

The intentional use of tone, words, and delivery, all catered to this specific audience for maximum impact.

Conflict in your story that your audience can connect with

 

What is the purpose of visualizations when telling a story with data? Select all that apply.

To convey your data in an easy-to-understand visual

To add credibility to your story

To mislead your audience

To showcase your knowledge of your reporting personas

 

What are some common pitfalls with presenting data in a slide deck? Select all that apply.

Too many slides

Too much information on the slides

Slides that are too busy

Too many visualizations

 

Fill in the blank:  ______ enables companies to identify new business opportunities, predict future trends, and optimize current operational efforts.

Intuition

Data

Competitive intelligence

Observation

 

True or false? The majority of people are willing to continue communications with a brand, even if they receive irrelevant promotions.True

True

False

 

Why is having a strong sense of purpose important for a business? Select all that apply.

It will help you and your team navigate uncertainty.

It will help you discover potential risks, redundancies, and/or experience gaps in your strategies.

It will ensure you’re meeting your customers’ needs and help you build off each offer to create a single brand message.

It will help you step into your customer’s shoes and see them as people, not just metrics, so that you can improve the lives of those you serve.

 

Fill in the blank: Competitive intelligence is ________.

used to identify an organization’s strengths and weaknesses, as well as its opportunities and threats.

the name of the strategy you use to actively slow down and sabotage your competitor’s flywheels.

the result of a company’s efforts to gather and analyze information about its industry, business environment, competitors, and competitive products and services.

a technique used entirely for visualization purposes, to envision the impact of forces and friction on a flywheel.

 

What are KPIs?

Goals that help you and your team be more productive and save time and money.

Statements that define the qualitative outcome of your goal.

A way to track the status of a specific business process.

Data points used to gauge performance.

 

What are the best ways to find out more about APIs and their potential use cases? Select all that apply.

Ask a web developer to look at an API and discuss it with you.

Start connecting systems and coding it on your own. Learning how to fix something is the best way to learn it.

Do the research on your own.

Check out the HubSpot API documentation to see how you can build applications and integrations using data from HubSpot.

 

On average, how many apps do mid-sized businesses use?

48

67

75

89

 

When you need to see small or incremental changes in your data over time, what is the best chart to use?

Area graphs

Pie charts

Bar charts

Line charts

 

Which tools are NOT part of the HubSpot reporting suite?

HubSpot Report Builder

HubSpot Workflows

HubSpot Traffic Analytics

HubSpot Dashboards

 

Fill in the blank: The purpose of the HubSpot reports library is to help you: ___________.

Decide what metrics should appear on your dashboard by offering several standard reports designed by subject matter experts in marketing, sales, and services to answer industry-specific questions.

Analyze the conversion rates between lifecycles or deal stages.

Dig into trends and determine which initiatives are creating the highest return on investment.

Measure the effectiveness of your marketing campaigns by providing HubSpot information about visitors accessing your site through the URL.

 

Fill in the blank: A data silo is when a group of raw data is __________.

shared among departments and teams.

accessible by only one department and isolated from the rest of the organization

audited for the purpose of detecting and correcting inaccurate records from a table or database

only communicated to the entire organization three months after it’s gathered

 

Fill in the blank: A positive feedback loop describes the process of __________.

an organization listening to complaints or grievances to improve its products or customer service.

visualizing the momentum gained by implementing a series of replicable successes.

a company listening to employees’ complaints or grievances, and using that feedback to improve internal structure and workplace satisfaction.

departments sharing information with each other to prevent data silos from forming.

 

In an A/B test, what are you testing?

A/B testing is a type of marketing experiment where you test two or more versions of assets against different segments of your audience over a set period of time.

A/B testing is a type of marketing experiment where you test up to five variations of a website asset against different segments of your audience, continuously.

A/B testing is a type of marketing experiment where you surface a variation of an asset that embodies your brand.

A/B testing is a type of marketing experiment where you create two different websites, featuring very different brand voices.

 

What do sessions track?

Every time the HubSpot tracking code is loaded on your website.

The percentage of visitors who land on a particular page on your website and then leave.

The number of visitors on your site that were initiated from a content offer.

All of the interactions a visitor has across your site until they have been inactive for 30 minutes or more.

 

Fill in the blank: UTM parameters _____________.

are bite-sized data tables databases split data into to streamline storage, management, and reporting.

are tags you can add to the end of the URLs of your marketing or promotional efforts.

tracks an output of something that has already happened.

are buttons you put on your site to encourage your audience to take a desired action.

 

When a contact has an original source of “other campaigns” in HubSpot, that means the contact first accessed your site through:

Your paid social ads campaigns.

Your tracking URLs.

Your email campaigns.

A search engine, like Google or Bing.

 

What happens in the engage stage of the inbound methodology?

You attract visitors with useful content and eliminate barriers as they try to learn about your company.

You explain the momentum gained by implementing a series of replicable successes.

You make it easy to shop and buy from you by enabling buyers to engage with you on their preferred timeline and channels.

You help, support, and empower customers to reach their goals.

 

Which of the following are examples of revenue metrics? Select all that apply.

Year-over-year growth

Deals won/lost

Revenue by product line

MQL to SQL conversion rate

 

Why are leading indicators considered “manageable” metrics?

They measure the efficiency of sales managers.

Sales managers can actively influence them with their teams.

They help salespeople “manage” up to their managers.

They’re aspirational, but it’s expected that the team will hit at least 70% of the goals they set with them.

 

Which of the following behaviors from sales reps could lead to steep drop-offs between deal stages? Select all that apply.

Qualifying only MQLs sent over from marketing

Negotiating poorly

Laziness

Giving bad demos

 

True or false? It is possible for non-SaaS companies to track renewal rate.

True

False

 

Which of the following are steps you can take to start to align your customer service and marketing teams? Select all that apply.

Get critical with usage and activation metrics

Create an SLA

Run a churn and renewal analysis

Run consistent smarketing meetings

 

What is a cadence?

A buzzword used by tech companies to sound smart

Any rhythmic sequence of words or sound

A formal name for the 1:1s you have with your manager every week or month

How often you should send a dashboard to your team, depending on their needs

 

Fill in the blank: The cognitive load theory states that __________.

the more force you add to the flywheel, the faster your business will grow.

learning falters when it demands too much working memory capacity.

data literacy is only a skill set available for right-minded people.

those highly skilled at reading data have a larger working memory and will not struggle to unpack what a dashboard is saying.

 

When would you build a dashboard with the Z-shaped reading pattern in mind?

If you are planning to build a dashboard that contains a lot of reports.

If you are planning to build a dashboard that contains only a few reports.

You should always build dashboards with the Z-shaped reading pattern in mind.

You should never build dashboards with the Z-shaped reading pattern in mind.

 

What is backwards planning?

A statistical technique which tells us how strongly the pair of variables are linearly related and change together.

A way to evaluate a decision based on things you didn’t know before making the decision.

A presentation design technique where you envision your audience as potential stakeholders and “pitch” them a story.

A method of designing educational curriculum by setting goals for the learner before choosing the instructional methods and forms of assessment.

 

True or false? Correlation does not equal causation.

True

False

 

What is the curse of knowledge bias?

The error of evaluating a decision based on things you didn’t know before making the decision.

The bias caused by assuming people have the same background knowledge as you, causing you to use terms that are only familiar to someone with your own background.

The bias that occurs when coming to a conclusion based on data. You assume that you probably could have guessed this information all along and you forget the data you used to come to that conclusion.

The bias that results when you are so tied to your own beliefs that your end up blatantly ignoring data and only going with their own beliefs to make a decision.

 

True or False? Word-of-mouth is not a good channel for small to medium-sized businesses to invest in.

True

False

 

Fill in the blanks: Tail winds are to ________ : as headwinds are to _________. Forces, friction. Friction, force.Ships, force.

Forces, friction.

Friction, force.

Ships, force.

Ships, friction.

 

When using pyramid goals, it’s important to have omissions because they:

remind you and your team of the customers you’re solving for with your purpose. ​

enable you and your team to prioritize the top milestones you want to achieve in the year.

are the top five objectives your company is trying to accomplish for the year.

outline your ultimate goal, objective, or outcome.

 

Scenario: You’ve been tasked with debriefing your marketing team on the results of the latest advertising campaign. Your primary goals were to generate new leads and customers for the business. What reporting tools would best help you find the information you’re looking for? Select all that apply.

HubSpot Campaign Analytics

HubSpot Ads

HubSpot Forms

HubSpot Traffic Analytics

 

What are the long-term effects of bad data? Select all that apply.

Sabotaging your competitors by marketing your business as more successful.

Costing your business between 15–25% of revenue a year.

Negatively impact any lead nurturing processes in place — impacting sales and marketing teams alike.

Getting buy-in from key stakeholders to invest more in automation tools powered by machine learning.

 

Fill in the blank: The purpose of funnel reports is to analyze:___________.

your object data, including contacts, companies, deals, tickets, activities, products, or feedback submissions.

key interactions that led to either conversions or revenue generated for your business.

the conversion rates between lifecycle or deal stages.

how ineffective flywheels are as a business model.

 

What happens in the delight stage of the inbound methodology?

You make it easy to shop and buy from you by enabling buyers to engage with you on their preferred timeline and channels.

You attract visitors with useful content and eliminate barriers as they try to learn about your company.

You help, support, and empower customers to reach their goals.

You explain the momentum gained by implementing a series of replicable successes.

 

Customer loyalty surveys in HubSpot track which customer sentiment metric?

Customer Satisfaction Score (CSAT)

Customer Effort Score (CES)

Net Promoter Score (NPS)

Customer Lifetime Value (CLV)

 

Which of the following are some best practices to consider when writing your data story? Select all that apply.

Use the word “I,” as frequently as possible to consistently present yourself as the thought leader.

Provide the context your audience needs to act.

Use headings and lists for scannability.

Using consistent repetition to drive your point home.

 

How do effective goals differ from efficient goals?

An efficient goal helps produce innovative, high-quality results. An effective goal helps you and your team be more productive and resources.

An efficient goal helps you and your team be more productive and resources. An effective goal helps produce innovative, high-quality results.

Efficient and effective goals are the same thing.

An effective goal is inbound. An efficient goal is outbound.

 

What are the advantages to native integrations? Select all that apply.

Often include access to support and technical representatives are well-equipped to help you troubleshoot any issues you might face.

Often free or lower-cost compared to hiring a developer to build a custom integration.

Help you connect your software system with any other application or platform on the market.

Don’t require coding experience.

 

What are the two factors you must consider when having a developer build a custom integration? Select all that apply.

Resources

Time

Experience

Scale

 

What is the HubSpot Solutions Partner Program?

An ecosystem connects you with over 300 integrations and a host of certified app partners to maximize the impact of your tech stack.

An ecosystem is a group of technology-based tools that help businesses to operate effectively, market efficiently, and enable sales and service teams to provide an optimal customer experience.

The world’s largest professional network on the internet.

An ecosystem where you can choose from thousands of agencies, service providers, tech consultants, and expert professionals who have the credentials and experience to bring your vision to life.

 

Fill in the blank: HubSpot counts a page view every time:___________.

three or more pages have been loaded on your website.

a click on one of your custom coded events occurs.

a form is submitted on one of your HubSpot pages.

the HubSpot tracking code is loaded.

 

Fill in the blank: A service level agreement (SLA) is an agreement between __________.

your marketing and sales on the definitions of MQL and SQL

a service provider and its customer that guarantees a certain output.

your customer and business on how quality your product is.

your marketing and sales team where you agree on what metrics matter most to your business.

 

Customer support surveys in HubSpot track which customer sentiment metric?

Customer Satisfaction Score (CSAT)

Customer Effort Score (CES)

Net Promoter Score (NPS)

Customer Lifetime Value (CLV)

 

True or false? When designing a dashboard, you need to put all your data in one place, so you can see each nugget of information you’ve uncovered.

True

False

 

Fill in the blank: If a person already has their mind made up and they are only paying attention to the data that supports this decision, this is an example of __________ bias.

confirmation bias

curse of knowledge

selection bias

hindsight bias

 

What happens during operational planning?

Operational planning breaks down the long-term goals of the strategic plan into short-term goals and activities.

Operational planning focuses on long-term goals, which align with your purpose, mission, and vision, and outline the direction of the business in the next three to five years.

Operational planning is a goal-setting system that helps to ensure that efforts are focused on the same important issues throughout the organization.

Operational planning is the result of a company’s efforts to gather and analyze information about its industry, business environment, competitors, and competitive products and services.

 

Fill in the blank: Data cleansing is the process__________.

of using the size, positioning, and color in your reports and widgets to draw your persona’s attention to critical areas.

of detecting and correcting inaccurate records from a table or database.

your business takes to provide sales with the resources they need to effectively sell.

that helps you review and invest in your customer experience in this age of the empowered buyer.

 

What happens during strategic planning?

Strategic planning helps you organize your data points used to gauge your company’s performance relative to a goal.

Strategic planning breaks down the long-term goals of the strategic plan into short-term goals and activities.

Strategic planning is a goal-setting system that helps to ensure that efforts are focused on the same important issues throughout the organization.

Strategic planning focuses on long-term goals, which align with your purpose, mission, and vision, and outline the direction of the business in the next three to five years.

 

Clean data is ____________. (Select all that apply)

Complete.

Consistent.

Condensed.

Accessible.